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Hey there!
Which is the prime factorization of 40?
Option A.
2 * 5
= 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2
= 4 + 4 + 2
= 8 + 2
= 10
Option B.
2^3 * 5
= 2 * 2 * 2 * 5
= 4 * 2 * 5
= 8 * 5
= 40
Option C.
2 * 53
= 53 * 2
= 53 + 53
= 106
2 * 3 * 5
= 6 * 5
= 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6
= 12 + 12 + 6
= 24 + 6
= 30
Therefore, your answer is:
Option B. 2^3 * 5
Good luck on your assignment & enjoy your day!
~Amphitrite1040:)
Answer:
Consider f: N → N defined by f(0)=0 and f(n)=n-1 for all n>0.
Step-by-step explanation:
First we will prove that f is surjective. Let y∈N be any natural number. Define x as the number x=y+1. Then x∈N, and f(x)=x-1=(y+1)-1=y. We conclude that f is surjective.
However, f is not injective. Take x1=0 and x2=1. Then x1≠x2 but f(x1)=0 and f(x2)=x2-1=1-1=0. We have shown that there are two natural numbers x1,x2 such that x1≠x2 but f(x1)=f(x2), that is, f is not injective.
Note:
If 0∉N in your definition of natural numbers, the same reasoning works with the function f: N → N defined by f(1)=1 and f(n)=n-1 for all n>1. The only difference is that you consider x1=1, x2=2 for the injectivity.
Answer:its a or b or c or d or mainly bbbbbbb
Step-by-step explanation:
