Answer:
Correct Answer:
C. Neither, both calculations give the same answer.
Explanation:
In any given business calculation that is expected to arrive at a particular solution, the solution obtained would always be the same irrespective of the method adopted. <em>For the example, the case of expected return of a portfolio in a business, the calculation would definitely give the same answer when two methods are adopted.</em>
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Answer:
A) $0
Explanation:
as per IRC section 101g, if the payment exceeds the greater of per actual cost then the excess payment amount will be taxable.
total tax free payment = 360*30
= $10,800
Therefore, The taxable amount is $0
Answer:
$961.42
Explanation:
firstly, we calculate the clean clean price below:
FV= 1,000
PMT= 40 (80 / 2)
I= 4.5 (9 / 2)
N= 14 (7 × 2)
Thus, PV= 948.89
Accrued Interest = coupon × (days since last payment/days in current coupon period)= 40 × (57 / 182) = 12.53
conclusively, dirty price = 948.89 + 12.53 = 961.42
Answer:a debit to Cost of Goods Sold and a credit to Merchandise Inventory for $217
( The answer Is not in the options given)
Explanation:
The Perpetual inventory is a method of accounting for inventory which immediately records when an inventory is sold or purchased using the available point-of-sale software systems of the particular business.
In that regard , the entry to record cost of merchandise sold
Account titles Debit Credit
Cost of goods (Merchandise sold) $217
Merchandise Inventory $217
