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lakkis [162]
3 years ago
9

If y = 3x +1 were changed to y = x+1, how would the graph of the new function

Mathematics
1 answer:
nikitadnepr [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The standard form of a linear equation, a line, is y = mx + b, where m is the slope. The rule is the higher this value of m, the steeper the graph is. If we have the original equation y = 3x + 1, its slope m is 3; in the "new" equation, y = x + 1, its slope is 1. So the "new" equation would be less steep because the slope is a lower value than the original.

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Answer choices:<br>A (3 , -4)<br>B (4 , -7/2)<br>C (-5 , 8)<br>D (5/2 , -17/4)​
zhuklara [117]

Answer: D (5/2, -17/4)

Step-by-step explanation:  Using elimination your goal is to get rid or 1 variable  so you can solve for the one that's left.  By adding the -2y and 2y you will get 0.  You will also add the 3x+x (4x) and -1+11 (10).  You have now gotten rid of the y and have 4x=10.  By dividing each side by 4 we now know x =2.5.  D is the only possible solution with x=2.5 (5/2) but to solve for y you plug 2.5 in to an equation as x so) x-2y=11

                                                                           2.5-2y=11

                                                                            -2y=8.5                                                                        Answer D (5/2,-17/4)                                      y=-17/4 (4.25)

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A baseball bat and 8 baseballs cost $163.25. The bat costs $106.45. What is the cost of one baseball?
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Vincent and Jean are two cooks who work in a village. Each of them can either bake cakes or make pizzas. Every ingredient is rea
babymother [125]

Answer:

a) Jean b) Jean c) Vincent d) Jean              

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information in the question.

Vincent can bake 10 cakes or make 5 pizzas

Jean can bake 12 cake or make 8 pizzas.

a) Absolute advantage of baking cake

Jean has the absolute advantage of baking cake as he can bake more cakes as compared to Vincent.

b) Absolute advantage of making pizza

Jean has the absolute advantage of making pizza as he can make more pizzas as compared to Vincent.

In order to find comparative advantage, we find the opportunity cost which can be defined as:

\text{Opportunity Cost} = \displaystyle\frac{\text{What one sacrifices}}{\text{What one gains}}

c) Comparative advantage in baking cakes

Opportunity cost of Vincent for baking cakes = \frac{5}{10} = \frac{1}{2}

Opportunity cost of Jean for baking cakes = \frac{8}{12} = \frac{2}{3}

The less is the opportunity cost the better, hence, Vincent has comparative advantage in baking cakes.

d) Comparative advantage in making pizzas

Opportunity cost of Vincent for making pizzas = \frac{10}{5} = 2

Opportunity cost of Jean for making pizzas = \frac{12}{8} = \frac{3}{2}

The less is the opportunity cost the better, hence, Jean has comparative advantage in making pizzas.

8 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
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