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Mamont248 [21]
3 years ago
10

Multi-Level-Marketing is a quickly growing industry in the United States. Many men and women are deciding to work from home, sel

ling various goods to their friends and family due to the convenience and possible salary that can be made. Multi-Level-Marketing consists of a hierarchy of workers and customers and is sometimes referred to as a pyramid scheme
Business
1 answer:
tiny-mole [99]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Multilevel marketing is a strategy that consists of creating a hierarchy of workers for product distribution, being very common companies of beauty products, essential oils, and other products that are easy to sell. The strategy works like this: the distributors buy the products of the companies to sell to the final customer, and thus they receive a percentage for the sale of the products. But there is a criticism about this strategy, which can be a pyramid scheme, when there is a greater intention of the company to recruit new distributors than to actually sell its products, because in a pyramid scheme the intention is always to profit to benefit those who are on the top. Generally, companies that operate in an illegal pyramid scheme have strong marketing aimed at recruiting people to purchase products for sale with promises of quick enrichment.

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Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Landhill Corporation is authorized to issue 49,000 shares of $5 par value common stock. During 2020, Sandhill took part in the f
spayn [35]

Answer: Please see answer in explanation column

Explanation:

1. Journal to record common stock issued

Account title                                             Debit               Credit

  Cash                                                 $210,400

Common stock                                                           $22,500

Paid in capital in excess of par                                  $187,900

common stock

Calculation:

Cash = 4,500 x $45 + $7900= $210,400

Common stock =4,500 x $5=$22,500

Paid in capital in excess of par common stock = Cash - Common stock =$210,400-$22,500=$187,900

 

2) To reccord Land purchased in exchange of common stock

Account title                                             Debit               Credit

  Land                                                     $50,600

Common stock                                                             $ 5,500

Paid in capital in excess of par                                     $45,100

common stock

Calculation:

Land= 1,100 x $46 = $50,600

Common stock =1,100 x $5=$5,500

Paid in capital in excess of par common stock = 1100 x (46-5)$41=45,100

3) To record purchase of treasury stock

Account title                                             Debit               Credit

  Treasury stock                                  $19,270                  

   Cash                                                                              $19,270

Calculation:

Treasury stock       =  470 shares x$41= $19,270

8 0
3 years ago
Rank the five following levels of post secondary education based on the average yearly income .
mr Goodwill [35]
What’s your question? I don’t see the options...
7 0
3 years ago
eBookPrintReferences Check my work Check My Work button is now enabledItem 180Item 180 Ouelette Corporation's relevant range of
telo118 [61]

Answer:

$22,800

Explanation:

Calculation for the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost incurred

First step is to find the fixed manufacturing overhead portion

Fixed manufacturing overhead portion=$3.00 *5000 units

Fixed manufacturing overhead portion =$15,000

Second step is to calculate the indirect manufacturing cost if 6,000 units are produced using this formula

Indirect manufacturing cost =Fixed manufacturing overhead portion

+ Variable portion

Let plug in the formula

Indirect manufacturing cost=$15,000 + ($1.30*6,000 units)

Indirect manufacturing cost=$15,000+$7,800

Indirect manufacturing cost=$22,800

Therefore the total amount of indirect manufacturing cost incurred is closest to $22,800

8 0
3 years ago
You are the manager of a firm that produces products X and Y at zero cost. You know that different types of consumers value your
arlik [135]

Answer and Explanation:

a)

If you charge $40 for X then everyone will buy as everyone is willing to pay atleast $40. this means all three groups buy that is 3*1000 buyers.So profit from X = 3000*40= $120,000

And since everyone is willing to willing to pay atleast $60 for Y again all three groups will buy so profit from Y =3000*60=$180,000

profits=$300,000

b)

If you charge $90 and $160 for X and Y respectively you will have only 1000 buyers for each product as others are unwilling to pay this much.

So profits = 1000*90 + 1000*160=$250,000

c)

for a bundle of X and Y buyers are willing to pay a total of $150, $210 and $200 across the three categories.

So everyone will buy a bundle of 1 X and 1 Y.

profits = 150*3000= $450,000

d)

If you charge $210 only the second will buy as they are willing to pay that much so profits =1000*210=$210,000

Also by selling X at $90 group 1 will buy X; profits=1000*90=$90,000

and by selling Y at $160 group 3 will buy Y; profits=1000*160=$160,000

total profits =$460,000

8 0
3 years ago
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