Answer:
(A) $1,055.35 (B) $2,180.53 (C) $780.07 (D) $412.08.
Explanation:
The tenor of the bond is 27 years i.e. (27 * 2=) 54 periods of 6 months each (n).
Face Value (F) = $1,000
Coupon (C) = 6% annually = 3% semi annually = (3% * 1000 face value) = $30.
The Present Value (PV) of the Bond is computed as follows.
PV of recurring coupon payments + PV of face value at maturity
= 
A) Yield = 5.6% annually = 2.8% semi annually.

= 830.25 + 225.10
= $1,055.35.
B) Yield = 1% annually = 0.5% semi annually.

= 1,416.64 + 763.89
= $2,180.53.
C) Yield = 8% annually = 4% semi annually.

= 659.79 + 120.28
= $780.07.
D) Yield = 15% annually = 7.5% semi annually.

= 391.95 + 20.13
= $412.08.
Answer:
32,000
8000
see below
.16
see below
Explanation:
I'm not really sure what the schedule is supposed to look like (im not good at accounting) exactly but i whipped up something real quick in excel and if you have any questions ask
the depreciable cost is just cost-salvage (the amount that's going to be depreciated) so for us its 34000-2000 or 32,000
the depreciation expense is just the depreciable cost divided by the useful live (32,000/4)=8000
see my attempt at a depreciation schedule below
The deprecation rate per unit is the depreciable cost divided by the total units
32000/200000= .16
and you can see below my attempt at the units of production schedule
Answer:
A higher operating income will result under absorption costing
Explanation:
If manufacturing production exceeds units sold there will be an increase in inventory and increases in inventory cause income to be higher under absorption costing than under variable costing.
Under variable costing, as its name suggests, only variable production costs are assigned to inventory and cost of goods sold.
Under absorption costing, normal manufacturing costs are considered product costs and included in inventory.
<em>Recognize that a reduction in inventory during a period will cause the opposite effect. </em>
<em>Specifically, a portion of the contents of the beginning inventory would be transferred to expense commensurate with the decrease in inventory. </em>
<em>Since the inventory contains less under variable costing, expect expenses to be lower and income to be higher.</em>
Answer:
A. Buy a call
Explanation:
In the case when the investor purchase a call on the stock so the investor has the right to purchase for repurchase for a fixed price
Also the right way is to hedge a non-realized profit for a stock position i.e. short for purchasing a call
Therefore in the given situation, the correct option is A.
Answer:
the firm will become more reasky as their Weighted-average cost-of-capital will change over time based on market condition but the management wil take project based on obsolete information
Thus, the WACC of the company will increase without the management notice this because, lender will use higher rate to make up for the change of failling Also, the shares wil trade at a lower value as is not maximizing the value of the firm.
Explanation: