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swat32
3 years ago
9

Klear Manufacturing sells its plant with a cost of $1.2 million to Burt Company for $1.4 million and immediately leases it back

for a 15-year term. The transaction does not meet the revenue recognition criteria under ASC Topic 606. At the inception of the sale and leaseback, Klear should debit cash and credit
a. notes payable.
b. sales revenue.
c. lease liability.
d. the asset.
Business
1 answer:
AfilCa [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Klear Manufacturing

At the inception of the sale and leaseback, Klear should debit cash and credit

c. lease liability.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Debit Cash $1.4 million Lease Liability $1.4 million

Debit ROU asset $1.4 million Credit Plant $1.2 million Credit Gain from Sale $0.2 million

b) The sale and leaseback creates a right of use asset as well as a lease liability.  Therefore, the Cash account is debited for the cash receipts from the transaction and the Lease Liability is credited.  Also debited is the right of use asset with corresponding credits to the Asset account and Gain from Sale.

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Multiple Choice Question 71 Boswell Company manufactures two products, Regular and Supreme. Boswell’s overhead costs consist of
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Answer:

Allocated MOH=  $5,250,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Overhead costs:

Machining = $5,000,000

Assembling= $2,500,000

Regular:

Direct labor hours= 10,000

Machine hours= 10,000

Number of parts= 90,000

Supreme:

Direct labor hours= 15,000

Machine hours= 30,000

Number of parts= 160,000

First, we need to calculate the estimated overhead rate for each department. For Machining, we will use the machine hours. For Assembling, we will use the direct labor hours.

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

<u>Machining:</u>

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 5,000,000/ (10,000 + 30,000)= $125 per machine hour

<u>Assembling:</u>

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  2,500,000/(25,000)= $100 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead to supreme.

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= (125*30,000) + (100*15,000)= $5,250,000

6 0
3 years ago
The demand for one of X Company’s products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

$230,000

Revised Question:

The demand for one of X Company's products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment that originally cost $1,300,000 and has a carrying value of $720,000. As of the current date, December 31, 2012, it is expected that only an additional 400,000 units are likely to be sold over the remaining life of the equipment. Each unit sells for $3 and has a manufacturing cost of $1.50. Relevant information as of December 31, 2018:

The undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment is expected to be $600,000.

The present value of the future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment, calculated at the company's cost of capital, is $475,000.

The equipment has a fair value of $490,000 on the date of evaluation.

How much of an impairment loss will X Company recognize in 2018?

Explanation:

IAS 36 Impairment of Assets states that company's or entity's assets can not be carried at more than their Recoverable Amount

<em>Recoverable Amount</em> equals to higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use

<em>Value in Use</em> is net present value (NPV) of future cashflows generated by an asset.

Lets calculate the Recoverable amount of the equipment of Company X:

Fair Value less Cost of disposal = $490,000 - 0 = $490,000

Value in Use = discounted future cashflows from equipment =  $475,000

<em>So Recoverable Amount is higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use i.e $490,000</em>

<h3>Impairment Loss = Carrying Value - Recoverable Amount </h3><h3>                              = $720,000 - $490,000</h3><h3>                              = $230,000</h3>
5 0
3 years ago
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lesantik [10]

Answer:

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Price of Stock =  (Current year Dividend x ( 1+ growth rate)) / (nominal cost of capital - growth rate)

Current year Dividend = $ 2

Nominal Cost of Capital = 10.25 % or .1025

Growth rate = 3.50 % or 0.0350

Price of Stock = ( $2 x (1 + 0.035) / (.1025 - .035))

Price of Stock =  $ 2.07 / ( .1025 - 0.0350) = $ 30.67  

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Real Cost of Capital  = [ ( 1 + .1025) / ( 1 + .0350) - 1 ] = 0.0652 or 6.50 %

Price of Stock =(Dividend x ( 1 + growth rate)) / ( Real cost of Capital - Inflation rate)

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Answer:

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