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alina1380 [7]
3 years ago
13

I will mark best answer!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Reika [66]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 10

Step-by-step explanation:

8v - 4(v + 8 ) = 8

Distribute

8v - 4v - 32 = 8

Combine like terms

4v - 32 = 8

Add 32 to both sides

4v = 40

Divide by 4 on both sides

V = 10

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Solve for x: 7x + 15 = 38
olganol [36]
7x + 15 = 38
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The soccer team sells 54 bagels with cream cheese for $2 each and 36 muffins for $1 each during a bake sale.The coach uses the m
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Read 2 more answers
Show that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6<br>Solution<br>(​
vladimir2022 [97]

Proof by induction

Base case:

n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.

Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.

For n+1:

(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=

(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))

We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.

We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.

If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.

The "cool" part about this proof.

Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:

If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.

If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.

Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.

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3 years ago
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cestrela7 [59]

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you change nothing but the angle and positioning of the original shape, then it is congruent.

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