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EleoNora [17]
2 years ago
15

the distance between Johannesburg and bloemfontein is estimated at 435km. if they travel at an average speed of 120km per hour,h

ow long will it take them to travel from Johannesburg to bloemfontein? give answer in hours ,minutes and seconds​
Mathematics
2 answers:
rjkz [21]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3.625h,217.5min,13050sec

Step-by-step explanation:

S=vt

t=S/v

t=435/120 (km) /(km/h) =3.625h

t= 3.625*60 min = 217.5 min

t=217.5*60sec = 13050 sec

Umnica [9.8K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

t= 3.625 gio 217.5 phút = 13.050 giây

Step-by-step explanation:

s= vt

t=s/v

t= 435/120= 3.625 gio

t= 3.625*60=217.5 phút

t=  217.5*60 = 13.050 giây

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Which equation has the least steep graph? A. y = x + 6 B. y = -x - 9 C. y = 2x + 1 D. y = -7x - 2
maria [59]

Answer:

A and B.

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>To get to know the graph with least slope, we have to write all equations in the form <u>y=mx + c. </u></h3>

where m is the slope and c is the the y-intercept.

A. y = x + 6

For this equation m = 1

B. y = -x - 9  

For equation B, m = -1

C. y = 2x + 1  

In this equation, m = 2  

D. y = -7x - 2

In equation D, m = -7

The equation with the highest slope is D while the one with the least slope/steep is <em>A and B.</em>

3 0
3 years ago
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Samir is an expert marksman. When he takes aim at a particular target on the shooting range, there is a 0.950.950, point, 95 pro
Vinvika [58]

Answer:

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them

Step-by-step explanation:

For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

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This means that p = 0.95

10 targets

This means that n = 10

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Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

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We want P(X < 10). So

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In which

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P(X < 10) = 1 - P(X = 10) = 1 - 0.5987 = 0.401

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7 0
2 years ago
Which statement describes the graph?
max2010maxim [7]

Answer : D

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then the graph start decreasing at x=-2  and goes in decreasing till x= 10

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Answer D is correct


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Bc there ia a 60% chance of winning so the chance of not winning is 100%-60%= 40%. 
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