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lina2011 [118]
3 years ago
8

A potential future negative impact to value and/or cash flows is often discussed in terms of probability of loss and the expecte

d magnitude of the loss. This is called
Business
1 answer:
natulia [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Risk.

Explanation:

A potential future negative impact to value and/or cash flows is often discussed in terms of probability of loss and the expected magnitude of the loss. Thus, this is called risk.

Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.

An effective and efficient way to mitigate risk in business is through the use of internal controls.

Hence, internal controls if properly executed helps to increase operational efficiency, protect and safeguard assets, provides accurate financial information, prevents fraudulent or unlawful behaviors, timeliness of financial records and reporting.

You might be interested in
Kankakee Cosmetics Company is planning a one-month campaign for December to promote sales of one of its two cosmetics products.
Masja [62]

Answer:

Kankakee Cosmetics Company

Differential Analysis for Moisturizer:

Relevant Costs:

Direct Materials $12.00

Direct labor $8.00

Var. Factory O/H $3.00

Var. selling expenses $2.00

Total Variable costs = $25.00

Unit Selling price = $35.00

Contribution = $10.00

Total contribution = $400,000

Advertising, etc. = $150,000

Differential Profit = $250,000

Differential Analysis for Perfume:

Relevant Costs:

Direct Materials $20.000

Direct labor $10.00

Var. Factory O/H $6.00

Var. selling expenses $3.00

Total Variable costs = $39.00

Unit Selling price = $55.00

Contribution = $16.00

Total contribution = $480,000

Advertising, etc. = $150,000

Differential Profit = $330,000

Explanation:

A differential analysis is a managerial accounting technique that considers factors that are unique to each decision and uses those factors to arrive at a decision.

It is also called incremental analysis.  In the analysis, differential revenue of each alternative and their differential costs are compared to find the alternative that yields the greater profits.

Fixed costs or sunk costs are not taken into account with this type of analysis.  Only the variable costs are considered, because they make the differences.

6 0
4 years ago
Windham Corporation has current assets of $680,000 and current liabilities of $850,000. Windham Corporation's current ratio woul
andre [41]

The ratio could increase with the purchase of $170,000 of inventory on account.

3 0
2 years ago
Exercise 19-3 Income reporting under absorption costing and variable costing LO P2 Sims Company, a manufacturer of tablet comput
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

Variable costing principle uses variable cost alone while absorption costing uses all cost both fixed and variable that are related to the production

1)Variable costing

Income = $28,000,000

Cost of production - $9,600,000

Gross profit = 18,400,000

Admin & selling expenses =509,091

PBIT = 17,890,909

2)Absorption costing

Income - $28,000,000

Cost of production  18,400,000

Gross profit        9,600,000

Admin $ selling expenses 5,259,091

PBIT = 4,340,909

3)Reported income is identical under both variable and absorption costing when production is the same with sales and there is no opening finished good inventory . All costs including the fixed costs are absorbed into the cost of production

Explanation:

Direct material - $40/unit

Direct labor $60/unit

Variable overhead cost - $2,200,000

Fixed overhead cost - $8,800,000

Variable admin cost - $700,000

Fixed admin cost - $4,750,000

Unit produced - 110,000

Unit sold - 80,000

Selling price - $350

sales revenue - 80000*$350 - $28,000,000

Cost

Direct material = 80000* 40= $3,200,000

Direct labor      = 80000*60 = $4,800,000

Variable overhead = 2200000/110000 * 80000 = $1,600,000

Fixed overhead = $8,800,000 =

Variable admin= 700000/110000 * 80000 = $509,091

Fixed admin = $ 4,750,000

Total cost = $23,659,091

7 0
3 years ago
An employee is _________when a company purchases an insurance policy against losses from theft by that employee.
Rus_ich [418]
<span>An employee is in a BOND when a company purchases an insurance policy against losses from theft by that employee.

Every business owners are advised to bond their employees under Employee Theft Bond upon hiring. This is to protect their businesses from employee theft and avoid possible bankruptcy. Despite rigorous filtering of new hires, there is still a big possibility that employees will steal from the company especially if company transactions are mostly done in cash to cash basis. </span>
6 0
4 years ago
On December 31, 2020, Flounder Company signed a $1,278,400 note to Culver Bank. The market interest rate at that time was 10%. T
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

All requirements are solved

Explanation:

An amortization schedule is a complete table of periodic loan payments, showing the amount of principal and the amount of interest that comprise each payment until the loan is paid off at the end of its term. Each periodic payment is the same amount in total for each period.

<u>Requirement A</u>

Amount of cash Flounder received from the loan =(1,278,400 x 0.62092) (102,272 x 3.79079)

Amount of cash Flounder received from the loan = 1,181,476    

   

<u>Requirement B</u>

Date           Cash           Interest         Increase in                 Carrying Amount

               Received Revenue     Carrying Amount         of Note

12/31/20                                                                                      1,181,476

12/31/21    102,272         118,148         15,876                       1,197,352

12/31/22   102,272         119,735         17,463                       1,214,815

<u>Requirement C</u>

Loss due to impairment = 1,214,815 - [(767,040 x 0.75131) (102,272 x 2.48685)]          

Loss due to impairment = 384,195    

6 0
4 years ago
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