Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Firstly, note that -2i really is just z = 0 + (-2)i, so we see that Re(z) = 0 and Im(z) = -2.
When we're going from Cartesian to polar coordinates, we need to be aware of a few things! With Cartesian coordinates, we are dealing explicitly with x = blah and y = blah. With polar coordinates, we are looking at the same plane but with angle and magnitude in consideration.
Graphing z = -2i on the Argand diagram will look like a segment of the y axis. So we ask ourselves "What angle does this make with the positive x axis? One answer you could ask yourself is -90°! But at the same time, it's 270°! Why do you think this is the case?
What about the magnitude? How far is "-2i" stretched from the typical "i". And the answer is -2! Well... really it gets stretched by a factor of 2 but in the negative direction!
Putting all of this together gives us:
z = |mag|*(cos(angle) + isin(angle))
= 2*cos(270°) + isin(270°)).
To verify, let's consider what cos(270°) and sin(270°) are.
If you graph cos(x) and look at 270°, you get 0.
If you graph sin(x) and look at 270°, you get -1.
So 2*(cos(270°) + isin(270°)) = 2(0 + -1*i) = -2i as expected.
The complete question is
Which statement is true about the factorization of 30x² + 40xy + 51y²<span>?
A. The factorization of the polynomial is 10(3x2 + 4xy + 5y2).
B. The polynomial can be rewritten as the product of a trinomial and xy.
C. The greatest common factor of the polynomial is 51x2y2.
D. The polynomial is prime, and the greatest common factor of the terms is 1.
we know that
case A) </span>is not right because 10 is not a common factor of the three terms.
case B) is not right because the original polynomial is already a trinomial
case C) is not right because the terms do not contain 51x^2y^2
<span>case D) is right
because
</span><span>Factors of 30 are-----> 1,2,3,5,6,10,15,30
</span>Factors of 40 are-----> 1,2,4,5,8,10,20,40
Factors of 51 are-----> 1,51
<span>so
</span><span>The "Greatest Common Factor" is the largest of the common factors
</span><span>the GFC is 1
therefore
the answer is the option
</span>D. The polynomial is prime, and the greatest common factor of the terms is 1<span>
</span>
B, D, A
No problem make sure to heart my comment Helps
Answer:
c
Step-by-step explanation:
i just used a calculator lol
Answer:
c
Step-by-step explanation:
im pretty sure an additive inverse is just the absolute value
