Answer: C) tan(pi/56)
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Explanation:
I recommend using a trig identity reference sheet. The specific identity we will be using is ![\frac{\tan(A)-\tan(B)}{1+\tan(A)\tan(B)} = \tan(A-B)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctan%28A%29-%5Ctan%28B%29%7D%7B1%2B%5Ctan%28A%29%5Ctan%28B%29%7D%20%3D%20%5Ctan%28A-B%29)
What we are given is in the form
with A = pi/7 and B = pi/8
A-B = (pi/7)-(pi/8)
A-B = pi(1/7-1/8)
A-B = pi(8/56 - 7/56)
A-B = pi*(1/56)
A-B = pi/56
Therefore,
![\frac{\tan\left(\pi/7\right)-\tan(\pi/8)}{1+\tan(\pi/7)\tan(\pi/8)} = \tan\left(\pi/56\right)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctan%5Cleft%28%5Cpi%2F7%5Cright%29-%5Ctan%28%5Cpi%2F8%29%7D%7B1%2B%5Ctan%28%5Cpi%2F7%29%5Ctan%28%5Cpi%2F8%29%7D%20%3D%20%5Ctan%5Cleft%28%5Cpi%2F56%5Cright%29)
Answer:
36-2n<1/3n+15
Step-by-step explanation:
There are multiple solutions. One solution is 30. Because 30 times 2 is 60 and 36-60 is less than 1/3 of 30 (10) plus 15.
Answer:
or (depends on what your curriculum requires)
Step-by-step explanation:
This question is asking for how many shares this person can buy when they have $2000 and each share costs $237.68
So how many 237.68s go into 2000? Well 2000 divided by 237.68 is roughly 8.14. However, you can not buy .14 of a share, so you round down to 8 full shares.
Now its time to write the inequality. Lets assign "x" as the amount of shares the character can buy. We know that they can buy as much as 8 shares, but remember that they can actually buy less than that, so anything below 8 shares and 8 shares would be x
8, indicating that x, the number of shares, can be 8 and anything less than that.
If you want to be really accurate, you could also add that x
0, since you cant buy 0 amount of shares. So then your answer would be
, meaning that they can buy between 0 and 8 shares, including 0 and 8
Lmk if this helped, was incorrect, or if you wanted me to clarify anything :)
Wait what is your issue for this cause you aren’t going to learn without you showing what you know
You can ise repeated reasonings