Answer:
B. Dominant for one trait and recessive for the other
Explanation:
using the Punnetts square for the question above, the 9 in the ration refers to a dominant for both traits such as AABB, AaBb.
while the 3: 3 refers to a dominant for a single trait and recessive for one such as AAbb, Aabb, aaBB, aaBb
and the 1 refers to recessive for both traits such as aabb.
Answer: The mother of the man can be either XHXH or XHXh and pass her normal allele to the son and his father can be either XHY or XhY, he only passes his Y chromosome. The mother of the woman can be XHXH or XHXh and the father could be XhY, then she could have inherited the normal allele from the mother and the affected allele from the father. But also, the mother of the woman could be XHXh or XhXh and the father could be XHY, so in this case she could have inherited the normal alele from the father and the affected allele from the mother.
Explanation:
Hemophilia is an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood does not clot properly. This can cause bleeding either spontaneously or after an injury.
<u>It is related to the X chromosome and it is recessive for females</u>, this mean they need both affected alleles to develop the trait. <u>Males only need one recessive allele because they only have one X chromosome</u>. This means that females need both parents to be at least carriers (although one or both can also have the disease or both recessive alleles). While males inherit it only from the mother, either she is a carrier (one recessive allele) or she has the disease (both recessive alleles). Then the mother passes the X chromosome with the affected allele to the son, and that son only receives the Y chromosome from the father, which does not have the gene that determines this disease.
If the mother is a carrier, her genotype is XHXh, being XH the normal allele and Xh the affected allele. She does not have hemophilia because she has a dominant allele. The father is XHY, so he does not have the disease because his only allele is normal (dominant)
The mother of the man can be either XHXH (she can only pass a normal allele) or XHXh and pass her normal allele to the son (in this case, the recessive allele is not inherited by chance.) His father can be either XHY or XhY, he only passes his Y chromosome which is not related to the disease. The mother of the woman can be XHXH or XHXh and the father could be XhY, then she could have inherited the normal allele from the mother and the affected allele from the father. But also, the mother of the woman could be XHXh or XhXh and the father could be XHY, so in this case she could have inherited the normal alele from the father and the affected allele from the mother.
I think it’s So lipid-soluble molecules do not enter or exit the plasma membrane unassisted
Hope this helps so sorry in advance if it’s wrong but hope it helps
A: Incomplete dominance!
Incomplete dominance is when a dominant allele doesn’t completely mask the effects of the other. The organism, as a result, will show a blending of both.
"The experimental hypothesis may be that if Asian worms are introduced into a <u>deciduous forest</u>, the soil's nutritional composition will alter. The control group would consist of a region of the forest that has been worm-free in some way. But in order to serve as a control, this forest would experience the same amount of sunshine, heat, and precipitation. In order to determine if Asian worms actually have an impact on the forest ecology, the scientists could then analyze the amounts of nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur in the two portions of the forest."
Deciduous forest- A deciduous forest is one that is mostly made up of trees that shed their leaves in the fall.
To know more about the forest ecosystem, click on the below link,
brainly.com/question/24258058
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