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3 years ago

What is the solution to the equation -4(2x + 3) = 2x + 6 - (8x + 2)?

Mathematics

1 answer:

MrRa [10]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

B. x = -8

Step-by-step explanation:

-4(2x + 3) = 2x + 6 - (8x + 2)

-8x -12 = 2x + 6 - 8x -2

(now, "-8" in both terms is cancelled):

-12 = 2x + 6 - 2

(leave 2x alone in second term):

-12 -6 +2 = 2x

-16 = 2x

-16/2 = x

-8 = x

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Any 10th grader solve it <br>for 50 points

kkurt [141]

Answer:

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0$ is proved for the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b,and c respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b and c respectively.

First term of given arithmetic progression is A

and common difference is D

ie., $a_{1}=A$ and common difference=D

The nth term can be written as

$a_{n}=A+(n-1)D$

pth term of given arithmetic progression is a

$a_{p}=A+(p-1)D=a$

qth term of given arithmetic progression is b

$a_{q}=A+(q-1)D=b$ and

rth term of given arithmetic progression is c

$a_{r}=A+(r-1)D=c$

We have to prove that

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)=0$

Now to prove LHS=RHS

Now take LHS

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{A+(p-1)D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+(q-1)D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+(r-1)D}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{A+pD-D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+qD-D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+rD-D}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD}{p}+\frac{Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD}{q}+\frac{Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD}{r}$

$=\frac{[Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD]\times qr+[Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD]\times pr+[Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD]\times pq}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}+pq^{2} rD-Dq^{2} r-Aqr^{2}-pqr^{2} D+qr^{2} D+Apr^{2}+pr^{2} qD-pDr^{2} -Ap^{2}r-p^{2} rqD+p^{2} rD+Ap^{2} q+p^{2} qrD-Dp^{2} q-Aq^{2} p-q^{2} prD+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}-Dq^{2}r-Aqr^{2}+qr^{2}D+Apr^{2}-pDr^{2}-Ap^{2}r+p^{2}rD+Ap^{2}q-Dp^{2}q-Aq^{2}p+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}-Dq^{2}r-Aqr^{2}+qr^{2}D+Apr^{2} -pDr^{2}-Ap^{2}r+p^{2}rD+Ap^{2}q-Dp^{2}q-Aq^{2}p+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$

$\neq 0$

ie., $RHS\neq 0$

Therefore $LHS\neq RHS$

ie., $\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0$

Hence proved

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3 years ago

Help me! I'm the most stupidest person ever!

vovangra [49]

Alright here's the breakdown:
your trying to find how many miles per day
so
take the miles (290) and the days it took (5)
and
divide the miles by the days it took (290/5)
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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers