Hi! I think there's no image of the chart but I'd like to answer about the Columbian exchange that might be the answer. The Columbian Exchange started was the widespread of trading of Americans and Afro-Asians and was followed by the voyage of Christopher Columbus to the Americas in 1492. They were exchanging plants, animals, technology, ideas, diseases and human populations.
How did servitude differ from slavery? Why did the laws get more complicated over time?
Servitude was different from slavery in that it was a form of bondage, meaning there was an agreement on a period of unpaid labor that usually paid off the costs of the servant’s immigration to America. The servants were not paid wages but they were generally housed, clothed, and fed.
The servants themselves were not considered property and were free upon the end of their indenture (usually a period of five to seven years).
In slavery, they were considered property of their masters. They are not given freedom and they are considered property as long as they live. No rights at all.
Discovering the American Past: From English Servants to African Slaves: Creating Racial Slavery in Colonial Virginia
In the early years of the colony, many Africans and poor whites -- most of the laborers came from the English working class -- were the same. Black and white women worked side-by-side in the fields. Black and white men who broke their servant contract were equally punished.
C the social structure of the Spanish colonies B. Mixed race people called Mestizo were free but usually poor. <span>
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<span><span>A.
</span>Millennia</span>
Millennia a
plural form of millennium is equivalent to 1000 years. Which means that 2
millennia is equivalent to 2,000 years span of time. Centuries, a plural form
of century on the other hand is 100 years in total, only. And lastly a decade,
is 10 years in total. All of these are terms in which they pertains to certain
amount of time which increases by power of 10. As you noticed.
10 – Decade
100 – Century
1000 – Millennium
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<span>d) No, because the Monroe doctrine stated that it was the fate of the U.S. to control North America. This was in fact the meaning of this doctrine and was/has been used to justify American interference in the internal affairs of many Latin American countries, not just Mexico over the years, including but not limited to, Guatemala, the Dominican Republic, Chile, Nicaragua and in recent times, Honduras.</span>
