1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
alekssr [168]
3 years ago
8

Can u answer this please​

Mathematics
1 answer:
daser333 [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Check pdf

Step-by-step explanation:

Download pdf
You might be interested in
Use the value of the linear correlation coefficient r to find the percentage of the total variation that can be explained by the
Pie

Answer:

5.47% of the total variation between the two variables can be explained by the regression line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

R value = 0.234

The R value is the correlation Coefficient ; which gives the type and level of correlation between two variables.

However, to Obtian the percentage variation which can be explained by by the regression line, we have to obtain the Coefficient of determination, R².

R² value is Obtained by taking the squared of the correlation Coefficient

Hence,

R² = 0.234² = 0.054756

R² = 0.05476 * 100% = 5.4756%

Hence, R² = 5.48%

This is interpreted as ; 5.47% of the total variation between the two variables can be explained by the regression line.

4 0
3 years ago
What is an equation of the line that passes through the points (0, 8) and (-8, -4)?
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

y = 1.2x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

slope = (8 - 2)/(5 - 0) = 6/5y-intercept = (0, 2)y = (6/5)x + 2y = 1.2x + 2

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Expand each expression
scoray [572]

Answer:

5log(a) +2log(b)

Step-by-step explanation:

you were close, but you dont multiply the exponents together since a and b are two different variables

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Steve will roll a number cube, numbered 1-6, twice. What is the probability
Leni [432]

Answer:

25%

Step-by-step explanation:

First we calculate the probability of rolling a number greater than 3, that is, it can be 4, 5 or 6.

The probability of each number is 1/6, so:

P1 = (1/6) + (1/6) + (1/6) = 3/6 = 1/2

Then, we calculate the probability of rolling a prime number, that is, 2, 3 or 5.

As we have again 3 numbers, the probability P2 will also be 1/2

Then, the final probability is the product of both P1 and P2:

P = P1 * P2 = (1/2) * (1/2) = 1/4 = 25%

3 0
4 years ago
5. Solve the inequality for n: 4n+2(n+1)>n+52
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:n>10

Step-by-step explanation:b

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • If Melanie spins this spinner 1000 times, approximately how many times will it land on blue?
    6·2 answers
  • Andrei's grandfather offered to give him a gift at 50% of the amount of money he saved in one year. Andrei saved $120 dollars. H
    10·2 answers
  • Can 3 ft, 4.5 ft, 5.75 ft make a triangle
    7·1 answer
  • 1. Find the mass of each of these objects on the earth.
    5·1 answer
  • The sum of the 3rd and 7th terms of an A.P. is 38, and the 9th term is 37. Find the A.P.
    6·1 answer
  • A conditional statement is logically equivalent to a biconditional statement. True False pls help i have a test and i was absent
    13·1 answer
  • The product of 3 and a number is at most nine
    9·1 answer
  • What is the answer for this ?
    14·1 answer
  • Help will mark Brainliest for the answer
    9·1 answer
  • Pls help!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!