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sukhopar [10]
3 years ago
8

A 37-year-old client experienced a perinatal loss 3 days ago. Which client characteristic would be communicated to the health ca

re provider?
Business
1 answer:
jasenka [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Denial of the death

Explanation:

A loss of a Child to a mother is not usually acceptable at first to the mother. A woman at 37 who is advance has slimmer chance of getting pregnant and the woman at 37, having a pregnancy and lossing the baby is not easy to deal with. Parental loss and bereavement is really had for a 37 year old mother who at first may not accept the death of the child but proper care will bring the mother back to full consciousness.

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Plush Corporation purchased 100 percent of Common Corporation’s common stock on January 1, 20X3, and paid $450,000. The fair val
Oxana [17]

Answer:

Please refer the detail answer in the memo below

Explanation:

Date: 24 January 20XX

Subject: Review of Impairment of Goodwill

From: External Auditors

To: Chief Accountant, Plush Corporation

Upon review of the investment made by your company in Common Corporation, we believe that there are possible indications of the impairment of the goodwill initially recognized in the books upon acquisition.

At the time of Acquisition:

Consideration = $450,000

Fair Value of Net Assets = $430,000

Goodwill = $450,000 - $430,000 = $20,000

The new guidance issued by FASB, requires only a one-step quantitative impairment test, whereby a goodwill impairment loss will be measured as the excess of a reporting unit’s carrying amount over its fair value.

However, if we follow the previous guidance of FASB, we have to test the impairment with the following three steps:

Step 1: We will compare the carrying amount of the net assets with the Fair value of Reporting Unit, and if the carrying amount exceeds the fair value, we will record the impairment.

Step 1: We will compute, implied value of goodwill by comparing the fair value of the reporting unit with the fair value of the identifiable net assets, if FV of net assets are higher, then there is no impairment, otherwise we will jump to Step 3.

Step 3: If the calculated implied value of the goodwill is lower than the actual goodwill at acquisition, than the difference is the impairment loss, however in case the implied value of the goodwill is higher than the actual goodwill at acquisition, no impairment shall be recorded.

Apparently, since the fair value of Common had increased to $485,000, there is no need to recognize the impairment loss on goodwill; however we believe that the estimated fair value of Common is less than the $430,000 and therefore impairment should be recorded.

7 0
3 years ago
3. This year, Paula and Simon (married filing jointly) estimate that their tax liability will be $200,000. Last year, their tota
choli [55]

Answer:

When a taxpayer has an underpayment of estimated tax or fall behind on his/her tax prepayment, then he/she is required to pay a penalty on Form 2210. This penalty is called underpayment penalty.

According to the tax laws, Mr. P and Ms. S can avoid an underpayment penalty if their withholding's and estimated tax payments equal or exceed one of the following two safe harbors:

  • 90 percent of current tax liability ($200,000 x 90% = $180,000)
  • 110 percent of previous year tax liability (110% x $170,000 = $187,000)

From the above calculation, it is clear that Mr. P and Ms. S's withholding's ($175,000) do not equal or exceed the amount of two safe harbors. So, they need to increase their withholding's or make estimated payments to avoid underpayment penalty.

If Mr. P and Ms. S increase their withholding's by $5,000 or make estimated payments of $1,250

per quarter ($5000/4), they can avoid the underpayment penalty.

Mr. Paula and Simon average gross income is greater than $150,000, so 110% is taken.

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Shelly’s preferences for consumption and leisure can be expressed as U(C, L) = (C – 100) * (L – 40). This utility function impli
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

Explanation:

U(C, L) = (C – 100) × (L – 40)

(a) C = (w - t)[110 - L] + 320

C = 10[110 - L] + 320

C + 10L = 1420

where,

C- consumption

w - wages

t - taxes

L - Leisure

(b) Given that,

L = 100 then,

C = 420

MRS=\frac{MU_{L} }{MU_{C} }

MRS=\frac{C-100 }{L-40}

MRS=\frac{320}{60}

              = 5.33

(c) L = 110

C = 320

Reservation wage:

MRS=\frac{C-100 }{L-40}

MRS=\frac{220}{70}

= 3.14

(d) At optimal level,

\frac{C-100}{L-40}=\frac{10}{1}

C - 100 = 10L - 400

C - 10L = -300

C = 10L - 300

Using budget constraint:

C + 10L = 1420

10L - 300 + 10L = 1420

20L = 1720

L* = 86 and C* = 560

4 0
3 years ago
In explaining hedge funds to an investor, a registered representative might correctly characterize them as utilizing:____.
Dimas [21]

In explaining hedge funds to an investor, a registered representative might correctly characterize them as utilizing common stockholders.

  • The potential for the greatest loss determines the riskiest situation.
  • The inherent nature of leverage in futures trading is one of the main dangers involved. The most frequent reason for losses in futures trading is frequently a disregard for leverage and the dangers involved.
  • Common stockholders always bear the most risk because they are the last to be compensated in the event of business liquidation. However, if the company is successful, common stockholders could stand to gain the most from ownership.

Learn more about common stockholders here

brainly.com/question/2528944

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Kim hires michelle to go to the art gallery and purchase a specific painting for him. the painting costs $1,500. because this is
svetoff [14.1K]
<span>Under agency law, Michelle can work as Kim's agent in the purchase of the contract. Kim would be the principle under the contract, Michelle would be the agent, and the gallery would be the 3rd party. Kim needs to authorize Michelle to complete a contract on his behalf and he will in turn be bound, just as the gallery will be bound.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
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