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amm1812
3 years ago
6

2. A series of five constant dollar (or real-dollar) payments, beginning with $6,000 at the end of the first year, are increasin

g at the rate of 5% per year. Assume that the average general inflation rate is 4%, and the market interest rate is 11% during this inflationary period. What is the equivalent present worth of the series
Business
1 answer:
Komok [63]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The equivalent present worth of the series is $27,211.16.

Explanation:

The first thing to do is to calculate the real interest using the following formula:

1 + i = (1 + r)(1 + inf) ..................... (1)

Where;

i = market interest rate = 11%, or 0.11

r = real interest rate = ?

inf = average general inflation rate = 4%, or 0.04

Substituting the values into equation (1) and solve for r, we have:

1 + 0.11 = (1 + r)(1 + 0.04)

1 + r = 1.11 / 1.04

1 + r = 1.06730769230769

r =  1.06730769230769 – 1

r = 0.06730769230769

The equivalent present worth of the series can now be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value (PV) of a growing annuity as follows:

PVga = (P / (r - g)) * (1 - ((1 + g) / (1 + r))^n) .................... (2)

Where;

PVga = present value of a growing annuity or equivalent present worth of the series = ?

P = constant dollar (or real-dollar) payments = $6,000

r = real interest rate = 0.06730769230769

g = growth rate of payments = 5%, or 0.05

n = number of years = 5

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

PVga = (6000 / (0.06730769230769 - 0.05)) * (1 - ((1 + 0.05) / (1 + 0.06730769230769))^5)

PVga = 346,666.666666712 * 0.078493722845371

PVga = $27,211.16

Therefore, the equivalent present worth of the series is $27,211.16.

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At the end of 2009, the following information is available for Clobes Company, Snyder Company, and Welz Company (you must show y
ella [17]

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

Note: This question is incomplete and lacks necessary data to solve for this question. However I have found similar question on the internet and I will be using that data. Besides, I have attached the data used in the attachment below.

Solution:

1. The debt-to-equity ratio is the best way to assess financial risk. A higher debt-to-equity ratio indicates a higher level of financial risk. This ratio represents the willingness of the equity of the owners to fulfil their obligations.

Formula used:

Debt-to-equity ratio  =  Total liabilities divided by owner's equity

For Clobes:

Total liabilities = 100,000

Owners' equity =  200,000

Debt-to-equity ratio = 100000/200000 = 0.5

For Snyder:

Total liabilities = 300,000

Owners' equity = 200,000

Debt-to-equity ratio = 300000/200000 = 1.5  

For Welz:

Total liabilities = 300,000

Owners' equity = 100,000

Debt-to-equity ratio = 300000/100000 = 3

Welz faces the greatest financial risk because it has the highest debt-to-equity ratio. It has a debt-to-equity ratio of three. Even though it depends on the industry, a company's debt-to-equity ratio should be between 1 and 1.5 if it is considered optimal. In this case, Welz's financial risk is considerably higher.

2. calculate Return on Equity(ROE)

Formula used:

ROE = Net income / Owner's equity

For Clobes:  

Net income = 25,000

Owners' equity = 200,000

ROE = 25,000 / 200000 = 0.125

For Snyder:

Net income = 30,000

Owners' equity = 200,000

ROE = 30000 / 200000 = 0.15

For Welz:  

Net income = 20,000

Owners' equity = 200,000

ROE = 20000 / 100000 = 0.2

Welz has the highest return of equity (ROE) of 0.2.

As a result, Welz is the most profitable company.

3. Return on assets:

Formula used

Return on Assets = Net income / Total assets

For Clobes:  

Net income = 25,000

Total assets = 300,000

Return on Assets  = 25,000  / 300000 = 0.08

For Snyder:  

Net income = 30,000

Total assets = 500000

Return on Assets  = 30000 / 500000 = 0.06

For Welz:  

Net income = 20,000

Total assets = 400,000

Return on Assets  = 20000 / 400000 = 0.05

Hence,

Clobes has the highest return on assets, which is 0.08.

5 0
3 years ago
Due to the ________, a firm strives to maximize its profits and will therefore never pay more for a worker than the value of his
krek1111 [17]

Due to the first rule of labor markets, a firm strives to maximize its profits and will therefore never pay more for a worker than the value of his/her marginal productivity to the firm. Therefore, the option A holds true.

<h3>What is the significance of profit maximization?</h3>

A process of following and adapting such methods that derive maximum revenue to the firm is known as profit maximization. It should be the primary goal of any firm in the market.

The first rule of labor markets says that when a firm strives for profit maximization, it does not pay the worker or the labor, more than the marginal productivity that the worker bring to the firm.

Therefore, the option A holds true regarding profit maximization.

Learn more about profit maximization here:

brainly.com/question/17233964

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The question seems to be missing. The complete question has been added for better reference.

Due to the ________ a firm strives to maximize its profits and will therefore never pay more for a worker than the value of his/her marginal productivity to the firm.

a. first rule of labor markets

b. demand product value

c. third rule of labor markets

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Answer:

the answer is: B) improve productivity by reducing turnover.

Explanation:

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How would a payment for rent paid in advance be classified? Multiple Choice Claims exchange transaction Asset use transaction As
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Prepaid rent is an asset exchange transaction because cash (asset) is credited while prepaid rent (also an asset) is debited.

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As the months go by, the prepaid rent is credited and rent expenses is debited.

Dr Rent expense month 1

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3 years ago
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