Answer:
$3,284.8
Explanation:
Calculation to determine How much would you pay for 80 shares
NAV= 80 shares x $41.06
NAV = $3,284.8
Therefore based on the information given the amount you would you pay for 80 shares if the 52-week high is the amount of $34.24, the 52-week low is the amount of $28.54, and the NAV is the amount of $41.06 is $3,284.8
Answer:
240
Explanation:
The computation of the optimal fee per unit of output is as follows:
As we know that
Marginal cost = Price
MC = P
1Q = 2,400 - Q
1Q + Q = 2,400
2Q = 2,400
Q = 2,400 ÷ 2
= 1,200
MC = 0.8Q
= 0.8 (1,200)
= 960
Now the optimal fee per unit of output is
= 1,200 - 960
= 240
Answer:
Sales 2,600,000
Less Cost of Goods Sold
Opening Stock 0
Add Cost of Goods Manufactured
Direct materials 1,218,000
Direct labor 522,000
Variable factory overhead 87,000
Fixed factory overhead 130,500
Less Closing Stock (350×(1,957,500/4,350) (157,500) (1,800,000)
Gross Profit 800,000
Less Expenses
Selling and administrative expenses:
Variable selling and administrative expenses (60,000)
Fixed selling and administrative expenses (25,000)
Net Income 715,000
Explanation:
<em>Product Cost (Absorption Costing) = Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Variable Overhead + Fixed Overheads</em>
<em>Period Cost (Absorption Costing) = All Non- Manufacturing Overheads</em>
Answer:
Variable overhead efficiency variance $ 8,018
<u> </u>Unfavorable
Explanation:
<em>Variable overhead efficiency variance: Variable overhead efficiency variance aims to determine whether or not their exist savings or extra cost incurred on variable overhead as a result of workers being faster or slower that expected. </em>
Since the variable overhead is charged using labour hours, any amount by which the actual labour hours differ from the standard allowable hours would result in a variance
Hours
2,700 units should have taken (2,700 × 3.20) 8640
but did take (actual hours) <u> 9,400</u>
Efficiency variance in hours 760 unfavorable
standard variable overhead cost per hour <u>$10.55</u>
Variable overhead efficiency variance $<u> 8,018 </u>Unfavorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance $ 8,018
<u> </u>Unfavorable
Answer:
A
Explanation:
To answer the question, we look at an extreme scenario of 0% interest rate and see the minimum repayment Jade will make on the loan taken
Therefore,
Interest Rate = 0%
This means that the loan to be paid will be calculated as follows
Monthly payments x 12 Months x 14 Years
= $195 x 12 months x 14 years = $32, 760
The meaning of this outcome is that the lower the interest rate to be paid, the higher the size of the loan, because at 2.9% the loan= $26,898.98 and at 0% rate the loan= $32, 760.
The conclusion therefore is a 2.7% interest rate which is lower than 2.9% but not as low as the extreme 0% will cause the loan amount to be higher than $26,898.98. This affirms option A.
Options B and C are wrong because 2.5% and 2.3% are lower than 2.9%, therefore, the loan amount will be higher. Option D is also wrong because a 3.1% interest rate is higher than 2.9%, therefore, the amount should be lower not higher than $26,898.98
