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3 years ago

Problem 24-2A Analysis and computation of payback period, accounting rate of return, and net present value LO P1, P2, P3

Business

1 answer:

Monica [59]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Base on the scenario been described in the question, we can find the solution to the given problem in the attached file below

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Managerial implications for the SDT theory include: Group of answer choices to motivate high performance for uninteresting jobs

geniusboy [140]

Answer:

to motivate high performance for uninteresting jobs make performance contingent on extrinsic rewards.

Explanation:

Extrinsic rewards means the motivation i.e. controlled and produced via payment, awards and appreciations. In the case when the job is not interesting so the motivation level should be high in this situation and when the job is interesting the motivation level should not high

So as per the given situation, the above statement should be considered as an answer

4 0

3 years ago

Misterio Company uses a standard costing system. During the past quarter, the following variances were computed:

kotykmax [81]

Answer:

1. Total hours allowed = 40,000

Actual direct labour hours worked = 52,000.

2. Standard hourly rate = $10

Actual rate = $10.2

3. Actual output= 20,000 units

Explanation:

The variable overhead efficiency variance in hours= variable overhead efficiency variance in Dollar/Variable overhead standard rate

= $24,000/$2= 12,000 hours unfavorable

Let the actual hours be V

Let the standard hours for the actual output achieved be = V

The actual hours worked = 130% of the standard hours allowed

Actual hours =130% × V = 1.3V

1.3V - V= 12,000

V=12000/0.3=40,000

Total hours allowed = 40,000

Actual labour hours= 130%× 40,000=52,000

Total hours allowed = 40,000

Actual direct labour hours worked = 52,000.

Standard labour rate =

Labour effciency variance in Dollar /Labour efficiency variance in hours

= 120,000/12,000=$10

Standard hourly rate = $10

Rate variance = (Actual rate - standard rate)× Actual hours

Let the actual rate be = Y

10,400 = ( Y - 10) × 52,000

10,400= 52000Y- 520,000

Y= (520,000 + 10,400)/52,000=10.2

Actual rate = $10.2

Standard labour hours for actual output = Actual output × standard hours

Let the actual output be = m

40,000 = m × 2

m= 40,000/2= 20,000 units

Actual output= 20,000 units

3 0

3 years ago

You are interested in valuing a 2-year semi-annual corporate coupon bond using spot rates but there are no liquid strips availab

Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

Following are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Assume that $r_1$ will be a 12-month for the spot rate:

$\to 1.25 \% \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99 + \frac{(1.25\% \times \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to \frac{1.25}{100} \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99 + \frac{(\frac{1.25}{100} \times \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to \frac{1.25}{2} \times 0.99 + \frac{(\frac{1.25}{2} +100)}{(1+\frac{r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 + \frac{( 0.625 +100)}{(\frac{2+r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 + \frac{( 100.625)}{(\frac{2+r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 + \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}=98\\\\$

$\to 0.61875 + \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 -98 = \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}\\\\\to -97.38125= \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}\\\\\to (2+r_1)^2= \frac{402.5}{ -97.38125}\\\\\to (2+r_1)^2= -4.13\\\\ \to r_1=3.304\%$

Assume that $r_2$ will be a 18-month for the spot rate:

$\to 1.5\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99+1.5\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{3.300\%}{2})^2}+\frac{(1.5\% \times \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to \frac{1.5}{100} \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99+\frac{1.5}{100} \times \frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{\frac{3.300}{100}}{2})^2}+\frac{(\frac{1.5}{100} \times \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\$

$\to \frac{1.5}{2} \times 0.99+\frac{1.5}{2}\times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{\frac{3.300}{100}}{2})^2}+\frac{(\frac{1.5}{2} +100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 0.7425+0.75 \times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{\frac{3.300}{100}}{2})^2}+\frac{(0.75 +100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4925 \times \frac{1}{(1+0.0165)^2}+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4925 \times \frac{1}{(1.033)}+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\$

$\to 1.4925 \times 0.96+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4328+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4328-97= \frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}\\\\\to -95.5672= \frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}\\\\\to (1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3= -1.054\\\\\to r_2=3.577\%$

Assume that $r_3$ will be a 18-month for the spot rate:

$\to 1.25\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99+1.25\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+\frac{3.300\%}{2})^2}+1.25\%\times\frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+\frac{3.577\%}{2})^3}+(1.25\% \times \frac{\frac{100}{2}+100}{(1+\frac{r_3}{2})^4})=96\\\\$

to solve this we get $r_3=3.335\%$

4 0

3 years ago

Gloria deposited $500 into a bank account that earned 7. 5% simple interest each year. She earned $225 in interest before closin

timama [110]

The number of years in which the money is in the account is 6 years.

<h3>What is simple interest?</h3>

Simple interest denotes the amount of payment that is received or paid by a person in return for anything pledged or given a loan.

The interest computed on the principal amount for a specified duration of time and rate of interest is called simple interest.

The formula of simple interest:

$\text{SI}= \text{P}\times r \times t$

Where, (P) stands for principal, (r) for interest rate, and (t) is for the time period.

<u>Computation </u><u>of a number of years:</u>

According to the given information,

P=$500,

r=7.5%,

t=?

SI= $225

Now, substitute the given values in the above formula, we have:

$\text{SI}= \text{P}\times r \times t\\\\\$225=\$500\times\ 7.5\%\times t\\\\t= 6 \text{Years}$

Therefore, the number of years is 6 years.

To learn more about the simple interest, refer to:

brainly.com/question/2793278

5 0

2 years ago

Assume that you purchased a $1,000 perpetual bond (coupon payment is $50) and the interest rate on that bond declined from 5 per

Svetlanka [38]

Answer:

D) all of the above

Explanation:

First find the present value for each alternative using PV of perpetual cashflow formula;

PV = CF / rate

CF = 50

If rate= 5%;

PV = 50/0.05 = $1,000

If rate = 2%;

PV = 50/0.02 = $2,500

With these two calculations, we see that;

-the bond price increased by $1,500

-you could sell this bond at a capital gain, meaning you can sell it a higher price that what you bought it for.

-at an interest rate of 2%, the speculative demand for money would increase

Hence , all these choices are correct!

5 0

3 years ago