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3 years ago

3) What is the present value of $1000, received at the end of 4 years of investment, with a discount rate of 4%?

Business

2 answers:

MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

$854.81

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the present value is as below

PV = FV/( 1 + r)^n

Where Fv =1000

r = 4% or 0.04

n= 6

PV = $1000/ (1 + 4/100)^4

PV=$1000/(1 + 0.04)^4

PV=$1000/1.16985

PV =$854.81

erastova [34]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

3629.9

Explanation:

I just did the test and thats what it told me the correct answer was.

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Ceres corporation acquired a mineral mine for $6,000,000 of which $600,000 was ascribed to land value after the mineral has been

myrzilka [38]

Answer:

$11,880,000

Explanation:

Depletion is an estimated cost of a natural resource that is extracted. This resource is expensed as the extraction is made.

As per given data

Value of Rights = $60,000,000

Land Value = $600,000

As we know land does not depreciate or depleted.

Depletion Value = $60,000,000 - $600,000 = 59,400,000

Estimated resources = 9 million units

Resources extracted in the period = 1.8 million units

Depletion expense is based on ratio of the amount of extraction in period to the total expected resource.

Depletion Expenses = $59,400,000 x 1.8 million units / 9 million units = $11,880,000

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Suppose real GDP is forecasted to grow by 2.78 %, the velocity of money has been stable, and the Fed announces an inflation targ

Vadim26 [7]

Answer: 6.48%

Explanation:

This can be solved using the Quantity theory of money;

MV = PY

When dealing with changes, formula changes to;

% change in Money Supply + %change in velocity = %change in price + %change in real GDP

Velocity has been stable so will be zero.

change in money supply = 3.70% + 2.78%

= 6.48%

6 0

3 years ago

Yolanda is a cash basis taxpayer with the following transactions during the year: Cash received from sale of products $66,000 Ca

riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

$23,500

Explanation:

Net income is arrived at by deducting relevant expenses for the year from the gross income for the year. In this question, sales income is used to represent gross income. The net income can therefore be calculated as follows:

Net Income = Sales income - Expenses other than rent and interest - Rent - Interest

Net Income = $66,000 - $40,000 - [$45,000 × (1/18)] - 0

= $66,000 - $40,000 - $2,500 - 0

= $23,500

Therefore, net income is Yolanda's net income $23,500.

Note that [$45,000 × (1/18)] is used to calculate rent for only one which is December of the calendar year since the rent was paid for 18 months.

8 0

3 years ago

A large life insurance company has decided to switch from using a strong fear appeal to a humorous approach. What are the streng

BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

A fear approach is meant to scare people and make them aware that they are only human and that bad things can happen. This would push them towards buying the insurance package. A humorous approach would focus more and a funny message of why it is important. This change would be targetting the same audience but with a completely opposite message which may not reach people the same way, especially if those individuals do not like the humor aspect of it and are not longer scared from the previous fear strategy that the company would have had.

5 0

3 years ago

Luxx Inc. currently has assets to $5 million, zero debt, is in the 40 percent federal- plus-state tax bracket, has a net income

kakasveta [241]

Answer: a.)$25 ; b.) $30.96

Explanation:

A.) Stock's current price per share:

Net income = $1,000,000

Dividend paid = 0.40 x $1,000,000 = $400,000

Dividend per share before recapitalization = $400,000 / 200,000 = $2

Price of the share before recapitalization is calculated as:

D1 = $2 × 1.05 = $2.10

P0 = D1/Ke - g

= $2.10/ 0.134 - 0.05

= $25

B.) Portion of equity after recapitalization = (200, 000 x $25) - $1,000,000 = $4,000,000

Portion of debt = $1,000,000

Revised WACC after recapitalization = Ke x E/V + Kd(1-t) x D/V

= 0.145 x $4,000,000/$5,000,000 + 0.11 x (1-0.40) x $1,000,000/$5,000,000

= 0.1292

= 12.92%

Revised net income is calculated as:

Before tax income = $1,000,000/0.60 = $5M

Interest = 0.11 x $1,000,000 = $110,000

Earning before tax = $1556666

40% of tax = $622,666.4

Net income = $933,999.60

Revised dividend = $933,999.60 x 0.40 = $373599.84

DPS = $373599.84/(200,000 - ($1,000,000/$25))

$373599.84/160,000

= $2.335

Revised price of the share after recapitalization:

$2.335 x 1.05 / 0.1292 - 0.05

2.45175 / 0.0792

= $30.96

8 0

3 years ago