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Llana [10]
2 years ago
11

A linear function has the same y-intercept as x + 4y = 8 and its graph contains the point (5,3). Find the slope of the linear fu

nction. Write the slope in fraction form.​
Mathematics
1 answer:
AnnyKZ [126]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<em>x - 5y = - 10 </em>

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + b (b is y-intercept)

m = \frac{y_{2} -y_{1} }{x_{2} -x_{1} }

~~~~~~~~~~~~

x + 4y = 8 ⇔ y = -\frac{1}{4} x + 2 ⇒ y-intercept is 2 and coordinates of y-intercept are <u><em>(0, 2)</em></u>

(5, 3)

m = \frac{3-2}{5-0} = \frac{1}{5}

y = \frac{1}{5} x + 2 (slope-intercept form)

<em>x - 5y = - 10</em> (standard form)

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Answer:

A. finished 1km

Step-by-step explanation:

b. 8km per hour

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The times for 5 runners in a​ 30-meter dash were 6.44​ seconds, 6.2​ seconds, 6.04​ seconds, 7.14​ seconds, and 6.48 seconds. Wr
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

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4 0
3 years ago
Roberto decorates retangular signs. One sign is 2/3 foot long and 1/4 foot wide. Another sign is 1/2 long and 1/3 foot wide. It
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer:

It'll take him 1/4 hours to decorate the two signs.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to know how long Roberto will take to decorate all the signs we need to find their surface area, since they're rectangular their area is given by the product of their dimensions.

First sign:

area1 = (2/3)*(1/4) = 2/12 = 1/6 foot²

Second sign:

area2 = (1/2)*(1/3) = 1/6 foot²

The total area he has to paint is the sum of their individual areas, so we have:

total area = area1 + area2 = 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6 = 1/3 foot²

To find out how long he'll take to decorate this area we can use a rule of three as shown bellow:

3/4 hour -> 1 foot²

x hour -> 1/3 foot²

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3 0
3 years ago
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
3 years ago
Please hurry final examm i need help
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

72

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply 72 by .75 and you get 54

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