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3 years ago

Can someone help me find the vertex?

Mathematics

1 answer:

jolli1 [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

vertex = (2, 264)

Step-by-step explanation:

i just used desmos so um yeah im sorry

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Help! How would I solve this trig identity?

NeTakaya

Using simpler trigonometric identities, the given identity was proven below.

<h3>How to solve the trigonometric identity?</h3>

Remember that:

$sec(x) = \frac{1}{cos(x)} \\\\tan(x) = \frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}$

Then the identity can be rewritten as:

$sec^4(x) - sen^2(x) = tan^4(x) + tan^2(x)\\\\\frac{1}{cos^4(x)} - \frac{1}{cos^2(x)} = \frac{sin^4(x)}{cos^4(x)} + \frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)} \\\\$

Now we can multiply both sides by cos⁴(x) to get:

$\frac{1}{cos^4(x)} - \frac{1}{cos^2(x)} = \frac{sin^4(x)}{cos^4(x)} + \frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)} \\\\\\\\cos^4(x)*(\frac{1}{cos^4(x)} - \frac{1}{cos^2(x)}) = cos^4(x)*( \frac{sin^4(x)}{cos^4(x)} + \frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)})\\\\1 - cos^2(x) = sin^4(x) + cos^2(x)*sin^2(x)\\\\1 - cos^2(x) = sin^2(x)*sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)*sin^2(x)$

Now we can use the identity:

sin²(x) + cos²(x) = 1

$1 - cos^2(x) = sin^2(x)*(sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)) = sin^2(x)\\\\1 = sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1$

Thus, the identity was proven.

If you want to learn more about trigonometric identities:

brainly.com/question/7331447

#SPJ1

7 0

2 years ago

How many gallons are in 1,980 milliliters? Rounded to the nearest hundredth

Setler [38]

I believe this is the answer? If not I am sorry!

4 0

3 years ago

What value of x makes this equation true?<br> 5-2(x + 8) = 6x + 7

zhuklara [117]

Answer:

x = negative 9/4

Step-by-step explanation:

-2x-11=6x+7

-2x-11+11=6x+7+11

-2x=6x+18

-2x-6x=6x+18-6x

-8x=18

4 0

3 years ago

Analyze the problem and complete the statements.

NARA [144]

Answer:

I know this problem is an

✔ equation

because it has an equals sign.

The t is the

✔ variable

The negative sign is the

✔ operation

The 7 and the 8 are both

✔ constants

Step-by-step explanation: i took the test :( crying cuz im bouta fail

6 0

3 years ago

An infinite number of ratios are equivalent to 3:8. How

Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

See below, please!

Step-by-step explanation:

There are infinite number of ratios equivalent to 3:8 because both numbers can be multiplied by a common number or divided by a common number.

For example, 9:24 would still be equivalent to 3:8 because the common number in our case is 3. See what I mean?

Hope this helped!

3 0

3 years ago