P1.5.3 thats what i got........... hope its right not sure though
Answer:
30m/s
Explanation:
From law of motion equation
Vf= Vi + at
Where Vf= final velocity
Vi= initial velocity=0(the car started at rest)
a= acceleration= 3m/s2
t= time= 10s
Then substitute into the equation to get the final velocity.
Vf= 0+(10×3)
Vf= 30m/s
Hence, the car's final velocity is 30m/s
A) 
The angular acceleration of the wheel is given by
where
is the initial angular velocity of the wheel (initially clockwise, so with a negative sign)
is the final angular velocity (anticlockwise, so with a positive sign)
is the time interval
Substituting into the equation, we find the angular acceleration:
And the acceleration is positive since the angular velocity increases steadily from a negative value to a positive value.
B) 3.6 s
The time interval during which the angular velocity is increasing is the time interval between the instant 
where the angular velocity becomes positive (so, 
) and the time corresponding to the final instant 
, where 
. We can find this time interval by using
And solving for 
we find
C) 2.4 s
The time interval during which the angular velocity is idecreasing is the time interval between the initial instant 
when 
) and the time corresponding to the instant in which the velovity becomes positive 
, when 
. We can find this time interval by using
And solving for we find
D) 5.6 rad
The angular displacement of the wheel is given by the equation
where we have
is the initial angular velocity of the wheel
is the final angular velocity
is the angular acceleration
Solving for 
,
The answer is B because if you use process of elimination, you find that A is invalid because Venus is the second planet. C is out because Mars is the 4th planet. D is out because we are nowhere near the Andromeda Galaxy. We are millions of light years away.
