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Vedmedyk [2.9K]
2 years ago
9

If the variable overhead efficiency variance is $500 unfavorable and the variable overhead spending variance is $100 favorable,

the journal entry will include a: (You may select more than one answer. Single click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer. Any boxes left with a question mark will be automatically graded as incorrect.) check all that apply Debit to variable overhead efficiency varianceunanswered Credit to variable overhead efficiency varianceunanswered Debit to variable overhead spending varianceunanswered Credit to variable overhead spending variance
Business
1 answer:
RUDIKE [14]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Dr Variable overhead efficiency variance

Cr Variable overhead spending variance

Explanation:

Preparation the journal entry

Based on the information given in a situation where the variable overhead efficiency variance is unfavorable with the amount of $500 which means that that UNFAVORABLE VARIANCE will be DEBITED and if the variable overhead spending variance is favorable with the amount of $100 which means that the FAVOURABLE VARIANCE will be CREDITED and below is the way the journal entry will be:

Dr Work in process inventory

Dr Variable overhead efficiency variance (UNFAVORABLE)

Cr Factory overhead

Cr Variable overhead spending variance (FAVORABLE)

Therefore the journal entry will include a:

Dr Variable overhead efficiency variance (UNFAVORABLE)

Cr Variable overhead spending variance(FAVORABLE)

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Check traffic<span> around </span>you<span> (rear, sides and front). Look for a gap of 4 to 5 seconds in</span>traffic<span>. </span>Activate your turn signal<span> (do this at least 100 feet before </span>you<span> make the lane change). Check </span>your<span> mirrors (rear-view then </span>your<span> side mirrors).</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Suppose the​ risk-free return is 6.5 % and the market portfolio has an expected return of 10.3 % and a standard deviation of 16
CaHeK987 [17]

Answer:

= 7.678%

Explanation:

Data provided

Risk free rate = 6.5%

Beta = 0.31

Marker return rate = 10.3%

Risk free rate = 6.5%

The computation of expected return is shown below:-

Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta × (Marker return rate - Risk free rate)

= 6.5% + 0.31 × (10.3% - 6.5%)

= 6.5% + 0.31 × (3.8%)

= 6.5% + 1.178%

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4 0
3 years ago
JL Co. stock currently sells for $64 per share and the required return is 12 percent. The total return is evenly divided between
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

The answer is $3.62

Explanation:

Dividend yield =0.12/2

Dividend yield = 0.06

D1 = 0.06($64)

D1 = $3.84

D0 = $3.84/1.06

D0 = <u>$3.62</u>

6 0
3 years ago
During the month of march, harley's computer services made purchases on account totaling $45,300. also during the month of march
Katarina [22]
The ending balance for March would be $85,700.

You would create a T-account for accounts payable and since accounts payable is a liability, you would credit the beginning balance. The purchases made during the month are also credited because you are increasing the amount in the liability. The $10,700 would not be included because this is unearned revenue and while it is a liability, it does not classify as accounts payable. The $37,800 would be debited since you are decreasing the liability by paying part of it off. 

Once doing so, you add up the amounts on the right side and deduct the amounts on the left: (78,200+45,300)-37,800=85,700
6 0
3 years ago
You can choose between Machine A or B. Your annual interest rate is 7%. You need a machine for 6 years (required service period)
dedylja [7]

Answer:

M1 EAC =  38,576.91

M2 EAC = 29,784.89

Explanation:

The equivalent annual cost is the PMT of the present worh of the machine/investment.

<em>Machine A</em>

54,000 at year 0 then 54,000 at beginning of year 4th

and 18,000 per year

We need to bering into present the 54,000 of the fourth year

the 18,000 are already split into each year.

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  54,000

time   3 (it is done at the beginning of the 4th year not at the end of it)

rate  0.07

\frac{54000}{(1 + 0.07)^{3} } = PV  

PV   44,080.09

54,000 + 44,080.09 = 98,080.09

Then we calculate the PMT

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV  $98,080.09

time 6 years

rate         0.07

98080.09 \div \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-6} }{0.07} = C\\

C  $ 20,576.791

Now we add the annual cost of 18,000

getting 38,576.79 as annual equivalent cost ofr machine 1

<u>For machine B</u>

anual cost of 13,000

purchase of 92,000

and 18,000 salvage value at end of year 6:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  18,000.00

time   6.00

rate  0.07

\frac{18000}{(1 + 0.07)^{6} } = PV  

PV   11,994.16

This is positive as is a cash inflow.

net worth: 92,000 - 11,994.16

net worth: 80.005,84‬

Now, we solve for PMT:

80005.84 \div \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-6} }{0.07} = C\\

C  $ 16,784.889

add the yearly maintenance cost of  13,000

Equivalent Annual Cost: 29,784.89

7 0
3 years ago
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