Answer:
1) 
2) 49.225
3) 
Step-by-step explanation:
1) To find the expected value of the dice we can use the following equation:

So in our problem the values x will be: 1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5 and 1/6 and the probavility for all values is 1/6 so the expected values will be:

2) To find the variance of the expected values we can use the equation:

So for our problem will be:



3) To find the expected value of the dice we can use the following equation:

So in our problem the values x will be: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 and the probavility for all values is 1/6 so the expected values will be:

A because 16x9=144 and 4x6=24 and 144-24=120
Answer:
No b answer is 867.2839506173£ will be of $1405
The equation of the graph y=
has no symmetry
The equation of the graph y = 
Replace y with -y in the given equation
-y = 
When replacing y with -y gives the different equation. The equation is not symmetric with respect to x axis
Replace x with -x in the given equation
y = 
y = 
When replacing x with -x gives the different equation. The equation is not symmetric with respect to y axis
Replace x with -x and y with -y in the equation
-y = 
-y = 
When replacing x with -x and y with -y gives the different equation. The equation is not symmetry with respect to origin.
Hence, the equation of the graph y=
has no symmetry
Learn more about symmetry here
brainly.com/question/16180199
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This is a simple application of english system conversions. I'm afraid that's all there is to it, you're just going to have to commit these to memory.
That said, I shall walk you through the problem. This one is fairly easy.
We know that in one pint there are two cups. As such, in two pints there are four cups, and in three pints there are six cups.
Therefore, there are <u>6 cups in 3 pints</u>.
Hope this helps :)