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alukav5142 [94]
3 years ago
11

For an applied transformer with a primary winding of 220, a secondary winding of 113 turns, a core of 45 cm2 cross-section and a

rated supply voltage of 220 V, frequency f = 50 Hz, number system Core style K = 1,2.
one. Calculated from the sensor in the core transformer.
NS. Calculate the rated capacity of the transformer application.
C. Calculating no-load voltage and current levels.
NS. If the power point is reduced by 7% from the voltage level; voltage scortation feature.
e. If use the core machine variable on random form; powerpress same as the host variable on; compare the capacity of the random transformer with the capacity of the transformer application.
Engineering
1 answer:
Damm [24]3 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/iron-core-wish-design-transformer-part-dc-power-supply-moderately-high-current-rating-volt-q53186459?trackid=83dbc34cec2e&strackid=3efc9f324415

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Which type of finish is absorbed into the wood?
stiks02 [169]
Penetrating finishes are absorbed by the wood and dry inside the wood. Interior wood stain is used to accentuate the grain in natural woods or plywood while still adding some color. While wood stains offer some level of protection on wood, it's recommended to use stain in combination with a surface finish.
7 0
3 years ago
In a cellular phone system, a mobile phone must be paged to receive a phone call. However, paging attempts don’t always succeed
Alina [70]

Answer:

The correct response will be "0.992". The further explanation to the following question is given below.

Explanation:

The probability that paging would be beneficial becomes 0.8  

Effective paging at the very first attempted is 0.8

On the second attempt the success probability will be:

⇒  0.2\times 0.8

⇒  0.16

On the third attempt the success probability will be:

⇒  0.2\times 0.2\times 0.8

⇒  0.032

So that the success probability will be:

⇒  0.8 + 0.16 + 0.032

⇒  0.992

7 0
3 years ago
What is a p-n junction? Show by the diagram.
Natalija [7]

Answer:

The p-n junction is a region formed when a p -type semiconductor material is joined to an n-type semiconductor material

Explanation:

The p type semiconductor has holes as its majority charge carriers making it positively charged while the n –types has an overall negative charge. At the junction the holes move towards the electron until such a time when there is a balance in charges from both materials, which leads to the formation of the depletion zone as shown in the attachment below

                           

5 0
3 years ago
A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
An Ideal gas is being heated in a circular duct as while flowing over an electric heater of 130 kW. The diameter of duct is 500
Rashid [163]

Answer:

Exit temperature = 32 °C

Explanation:

We are given;

Initial Pressure;P1 = 100 KPa

Cp =1000 J/kg.K = 1 KJ/kg.k

R = 500 J/kg.K = 0.5 Kj/Kg.k

Initial temperature;T1 = 27°C = 273 + 27K = 300 K

volume flow rate;V' = 15 m³/s

W = 130 Kw

Q = 80 Kw

Using ideal gas equation,

PV' = m'RT

Where m' is mass flow rate.

Thus;making m' the subject, we have;

m' = PV'/RT

So at inlet,

m' = P1•V1'/(R•T1)

m' = (100 × 15)/(0.5 × 300)

m' = 10 kg/s

From steady flow energy equation, we know that;

m'•h1 + Q = m'h2 + W

Dividing through by m', we have;

h1 + Q/m' = h2 + W/m'

h = Cp•T

Thus,

Cp•T1 + Q/m' = Cp•T2 + W/m'

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(1*300) - (80/10) = (1*T2) - (130/10)

Q and M negative because heat is being lost.

300 - 8 + 13 = T2

T2 = 305 K = 305 - 273 °C = 32 °C

13000 + 300 - 8000 = T2

6 0
3 years ago
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