Pablo ran farther, the work I did is below. I used an LCD (Lowest common denominator) to solve the problem.
Answer:
About 15.3%!
Step-by-step explanation:
ill explain in comments, i hope this helps you out
The <u>correct answer</u> is:
0.872.
Explanation:
The correlation coefficient of a regression line is a measure of how closely the line fits our data. Negative correlation coefficients represent decreasing lines; positive correlation coefficients represent increasing lines.
The closer a correlation coefficient is to +1 or -1, the better the fit; a perfect positive fit is r=1 and a perfect negative fit is r=-1.
We can see in the graph that the line is very close to our data, so it is a pretty good fit.
The line is increasing; this means we want a correlation coefficient that is close to 1.
The best choice is 0.872.
Solve simultaneously:
<span>15x-8y=52 and
6x+14y=38
</span>
Let's solve this system thru elimination by addition/subtraction:
Let's get rid of the x terms.
To do this, mult. the first eqn. by -6 and the second by 15. (This is not the only way in which we can do this!!) We get
-90x + 48y = -312
90x +210y = 570
--------------------------
Add all 3 columns together. We end up with:
258y = 258, so y = 1. You can find x by subst. 1 for y in either of the given equations.
If you'd like more help, please be specific about what you want.
