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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP ASAP!! CORRECT ANSWER ONLY PLEASE!!!

Business

1 answer:

Katena32 [7]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

So lets go over our information.

We know that the initial balance is 1,250

We know that the compund rate is the stuff inside the parethese is 0.012/4(we will pick that apart later)

We know that t is the amount of periods.

We know that the 4 means quarterly compounding.

So right of the bat, we can tell that it can only be B or D.

Next, we can use the information in the parethese to find the answer between the two.

So, looking at the 0.012, we can tell that if we shift it into percentage form(multiply by 100) we can find that its 1.2%.

This number inside the parethese, which is now 1.2%, is our interest rate.

So the answer must be D.

Hope this helps!

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The process of asset transformation refers to the conversion of:_______

kondaur [170]

Answer: c. Risky assets into safer assets

Explanation:

The process of asset transformation refers to the conversion of risky assets into safer assets. Asset transformationa is simply a form of transformation in which financial institutions like banks use deposits in the generation of revenue through the pooling deposits in order to make loans. It has to do with transforming bank liabilities into bank assets.

6 0

3 years ago

Getthere airlines currently charges $200$ dollars per ticket and sells $40{,}000$ tickets a week. for every $10$ dollars they in

Nataly_w [17]

Suppose GetThere Airlines increases their ticket price to $200+10n = 10(20+n)$ dollars. Then the number of tickets they sell is $40,000-1000n = 1000(40-n)$ . Therefore, their total revenue is

$$10(20+n)\cdot 1000(40-n) = 10000(20+n)(40-n) = 10000(800+20n-n^2).$$

This is maximized when $n=-\left(\frac{20}{2\cdot(-1)}\right)=10$ . Therefore, they should charge $200+10\cdot 10 = \boxed{300}$ dollars per ticket.

6 0

3 years ago

The annual carrying cost for a consumer product is $115, the ordering cost is $1,150, and the annual demand is estimated to be 1

STatiana [176]

Answer:

Store should take the advantage of discount.

Explanation:

Economic order quantity is the level of units ordered which minimize the total cost.

The economic order quantity (EOQ) is computed by applying the following formula

EOQ = [ ( 2DO ) / H ]^1/2

where D = Annual Demand in units = 1,000

S = Setup or ordering cost = $1,150

H = Holding or carrying cost per unit, per year = $115

EOQ = [ ( 2 x 1,000 x $1,150 ) / $115 ]^1/2

EOQ = [ $2,300,000 / $115 ]^1/2

EOQ = 20,000^1/2

EOQ = 141.42 units

Cost of EOQ

Purchasing cost = 1,000 x $810 = $810,000

Ordering cost = (1,000 / 141.42) x $1,150 = $8,132

Carrying cost = ( 141.42 / 2 ) x $115 = $8,132

Total cost = $810,000 + $8,132 + $8,132 = $826,264

Cost of Discount

Purchasing cost = 1,000 x $810 x 80% = $648,000

Ordering cost = (1,000 / 151) x $1,150 = $7,616

Carrying cost = ( 151 / 2 ) x $115 = $8,683

Total cost = $648,000 + $7,616 + $8,683 = $664,299

Store should take the advantage of discount because it incurs lower cost.

4 0

3 years ago

Sales revenue for a sporting goods store amounted to $528,000 for the current period. All sales are on account and are subject t

weqwewe [10]

Answer:

The answer is A. A debit to Accounts Receivable for $ 586,080

Explanation:

Sales tax is an additional amount of money one pays based on a percentage of the selling price of goods and services that are purchased.

The sales tax amount will be added to sales revenue to form the total bill.

Sales revenue ----------------- $528,00

Sales tax -------------------------- 11%

Sales tax amount

$528,00 x 0.11

= $58,080

Therefore, total bill is:

$528,00 + $58,080

=$586,080.

Debit increases an asset(accounts receivable) while credit decreases an asset(accounts receivable).

Since the accounts receivable will increase, it will be on debit side.

8 0

3 years ago

The Karns Oil Company is deciding whether to drill for oil on a tract of land that the company owns. The company estimates the p

Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

Investing today is a better option because it has a better NPV of $2.3398 million

Explanation:

Given data :

For Today's Investment

Initial capital investment = $4 million

positive cash flow = $2 million

period of cash flow = 4 years

project cost of capital = 10%

To get the value of This option we have to determine the NPV of this option

NPV = PMT * $[\frac{1-(1+r)^-4}{r} ] - initial cash flow$ ----------- (1)

PMT = $2 million

r = 10%

initial cash flow = $4 million

Equation 1 becomes

NPV = (2 * 3.1699 ) - 4

= $6.3398 - $4 = $2.3398 million

For later investment ( 2 years )

initial capital investment = $5 million

90% chance of positive cash flow = $2.1 million

10% chance of positive cash flow = $1.1 million

project cost of capital = 10%

NPV value for a cash flow of $1.1 million

NPV = PMT * $[\frac{1-(1+r)^-4}{r} ] - initial cash flow$

PMT = $1.1 million

initial cash flow = $5 million

r = 10%

Hence NPV = ($1.1 * 3.1699 ) - $5 million

= $3.48689 - $5 million

= - $1.51311

therefore the present NPV = - $1.51311 / 1.21 = -$1.25 million ( therefore no investment will be made )

NPV value for a cash flow of $2.1 million

NPV = PMT * $[\frac{1-(1+r)^-4}{r} ] - initial cash flow$

PMT = $2.1 million

initial cash flow = $5 million

r = 10%

hence NPV = ($2.1 * 3.1699 ) - $5 million

= $6.65679 - $5

= $1.65679

therefore the present NPV = $ 1.65679 / 1.21 = $1.369 million

The Expected NPV value of later investment ( after 2 years )

= $0 * 10% + $1.369 * 90%

= $1.2321 million

4 0

3 years ago