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Mrac [35]
2 years ago
12

In a triangle with vertices A,B and C, if C =64° and the lengths AC= 40mm and BC= 70mm find the length AB using cosine rule

Mathematics
1 answer:
boyakko [2]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

63.6mm

Step-by-step explanation:

According to cosine rule;

AB² = BC²+AC²-2(BC)(AC)cos m<C

Substitute the given values

AB² = 70²+40²-2(70)(40)cos 64

AB² = 4900+1600-5600cos64

AB² = 6500-5600(0.4384)

AB² = 6500-2,454.87

AB² = 4,045.12

AB = √4,045.12

AB = 63.6mm

Hence the length of AB is 63.6mm

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Answer:

a)P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

b) P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298

c) P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

So then we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Part a

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complenet rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969

So then we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X

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3 years ago
Charles rolled a number cube labeled from 1 to 6. What is the probability that he will roll a number greater than 2? in a fracti
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 numbers greater than 2 and less than or equal to 6, meaning that to roll a number greater than six, he has a 4/6 chance.

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3 years ago
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Answer:if A= [2 6] prove that (A')' = A

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Step-by-step explanation:

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