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raketka [301]
3 years ago
9

HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HEL

P!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!HELP!​

Mathematics
2 answers:
nadezda [96]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s yes

Anuta_ua [19.1K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:yes

Step-by-step explanation:

There is one very important exception to the rule that multiplying or dividing an inequality is the same as multiplying or dividing an equation. Whenever you multiply or divide an inequality by a negative number, you must flip the inequality sign.

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