1/32 because 1/4 is the probability for the first one and then 1/8 for the next one. 4 times 8 = 32 so there is a 1 in 32 chance
Answer:
They are known as terms in algebraic expression
Step-by-step explanation:
I need to go did hehshshshshshehehehehe
Answer:
1 and 31
Step-by-step explanation:
They both divide by it's self to get the same number.
9514 1404 393
Answer:
2) true
3) X = -19/48
4) Y = 27/56
Step-by-step explanation:
3) Subtract 5/6 from both sides
X = 7/16 -5/6 = (7·6 -16·5)/(16·6) = (42 -80)/96
X = -19/48
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4) Subtract 1/7 from both sides
Y = 5/8 -1/7 = (5·7 -8·1)/(8·7)
Y = 27/56
