I believe the answer would be a!
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
0.448 seconds
Step-by-step explanation:
d = -16t² -4t + 412
find t when d = 407
substituting d = 407 into the equation:
407 = -16t² -4t + 412 (subtract 407 from both sides)
-16t² -4t + 412 - 407 = 0
-16t² -4t + 5 = 0 (multiply both sides by -1)
16t² + 4t - 5 = 0
solving using your method of choice (i.e completing the square or using the quadratic equation), you will end up with
t = (-1/8) (1 + √21)= -0.70 seconds (not possible because time cannot be negative)
or
t = (-1/8) (1 -√21) = 0.448 seconds (answer)
Answer:
-16-72v
Step-by-step explanation:
-8*2 = -16
-8*9v = -72v
so, -16 + (-72v) -> -16-72v
Answer:
4+1m?? I’m pretty sure
Step-by-step explanation:
