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Sergeu [11.5K]
2 years ago
5

Long-term objectives are useful because they Multiple choice question. can be accurately measured, whereas short-term objectives

are vague and difficult to quantify. prevent a company from becoming overly focused on the near term and losing sight of larger trends and opportunities. emphasize performance improvements in the current period. set specific expectations for employees on a day-to-day basis.
Business
1 answer:
belka [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Option B:

Prevent a company from becoming overly focused on the near term and losing sight of larger trends and opportunities.

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Rediger Incorporated a manufacturing Corporation, has provided the following data for the month of June. The balance in the Work
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

cost of goods manufactured= $161,800

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Beginning Work in Process inventory= $41,000

Ending Work in Process inventory= $26,500

Direct materials= $58,800

Direct labor cost= $33,700.

The manufacturing overhead cost applied to Work in Process was $54,800.

<u>To calculate the cost of goods manufactured, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + <u>allocated manufacturing overhead</u> - Ending WIP

cost of goods manufactured= 41,000 + 58,800 + 33,700 + 54,800 - 26,500

cost of goods manufactured= $161,800

3 0
3 years ago
A real estate agent is considering changing her land line phone plan. There are three plans to choose from, all of which involve
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

PLAN A:

(120 * 0.39) + (40 * 0.19) + 20 = $74.40

PLAN B:

(120 * 0.49) + (40 * 0.14) + 20 = $84.40

PLAN C:

$20 + $75 = $95 ;

PLAN A is optimal from 0 to 192 minutes

PLAN C is optimal from 192 minutes onward ;

Explanation:

PLAN A :

Service charge = $20

Daytime = $0.39 per minute

Evening = $0.19 per minute

PLAN B :

Service charge = $20

Daytime = $0.49 per minute

Evening = $0.14 per minute

PLAN C :

Service charge = $20

225 minutes = $75

Minutes beyond 225 = $0.36 per minute

A.)

Determine the total charge under each plan for this case: 120 minutes of day calls and 40 minutes of evening calls in a month.

PLAN A:

(120 * 0.39) + (40 * 0.19) + 20 = $74.40

PLAN B:

(120 * 0.49) + (40 * 0.14) + 20 = $84.40

PLAN C:

$20 + $75 = $95

b. If the agent will use the service for daytime calls, over what range of call minutes will each plan be optimal?

PLAN A:

20 + 0.39D = 95

0.39D = 95 - 20

D = 75 / 0.39

D = 192.31

5 0
3 years ago
Morgan signs a contract with Shane agreeing to work with him for a movie. Halfway through the production of the movie, Shane dec
Mice21 [21]

Answer:

(b) Shane has to pay $20,000 to Morgan for breach of contract

Explanation:

In the situation, it is given that Shane decides to quit as he gets another job so he breaks the contract instead of finishing his work on time.  

Due to breach of contract, Shane has to pay $20,000 to Morgan because it is written in the party that if any party breaks the contract than he has to pay the amount. But due to some unnatural causes, no one has to pay.  

In the given case, Shane has deliberately broken the contract so it is compulsory to pay the $20,000 to Morgan.  

Hence, option b is correct

5 0
3 years ago
Nash Co. sells $435,000 of 12% bonds on June 1, 2020. The bonds pay interest on December 1 and June 1. The due date of the bonds
garri49 [273]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccccc}\\ &&$Carrying Value&$Cash&$Int. exp&$Amortization&$E.Carrying\\& 1&493574.88&26100&19743&6357&487217.88\\& 2&487217.88&26100&19488.72&6611.28&480606.6\\& 3&480606.6&26100&19224.26&6875.74&473730.86\\& 4&473730.86&26100&18949.23&7150.77&466580.09\\& 5&466580.09&26100&18663.2&7436.8&459143.29\\& 6&459143.29&26100&18365.73&7734.27&451409.02\\& 7&451409.02&26100&18056.36&8043.64&443365.38\\& 8&443365.38&26100&17734.62&8365.38&435000\\\end{array}\right]

<u>Journal entries:</u>

cash       493,574.88 debit

 bonds payable   435,000.00 credit

 premium on bp     58,574.88 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 19743

Amortization 6357

cash 26100

--to record Dec 31st, 2020--

Interest expense 19488.72

Amortization 6611.28

cash 26100

--to record June 30th, 2021--

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

--to record redemption--

premium on BP      4,813.04 debit

interest expense  13,456.96 debit

        cash                         18,270 credit

-- to record December 31st, 2021--

Explanation:

First, we solve for the proceeds from the bonds payable:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 26,100 (435,000 x 12% / 2)

time 8 ( 4 years x 2)

yield to maturity  0.04 ( 8% / 2)

26100 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-8} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $175,724.6412

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   435,000.00

time   8.00

rate  0.04

\frac{435000}{(1 + 0.04)^{8} } = PV  

PV   317,850.24

PV c $175,724.6412

PV m  $317,850.2392

Total $493,574.8804

We now build the amortization schedule.

We take this value, we multiply by the interest rate and then, solve for amortization and ending carrying value.

<u>To record the redemption:</u>

accrued interest:

435,000 x 0.12 x 4/12 (months from June to oct) = 17,400

premium:

480,606.6 - 435,000 = 45,606.6

proportional of premium:

45,606 / 435,000 x 130,500 = 13.681,98

we now solve for the gain/loss on redemption:

130,500 + 13,681.98 + 17,400 = 161.581,9 value redeem

                                      for cash 136,500

gain on redemption 25.081,98

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

Now, we solve for Dec 31st, 2021 entry.

bonds payable: 435,000 - 130,500 = 304,500

premium: 45,606 - 13,681.98 = 31.924,02

interest expense:

(304,500 + 31,924.02) x 0.04 = 13,456.96

cash outlay:

304,500 x 0.06 = 18,270

amortization 18,270 - 13,456.96 = 4,813.04

6 0
3 years ago
Which best describes the barrier to trade known as dumping? Destroying shipments of imports to force consumers into purchasing d
Lana71 [14]

Answer: Selling exports abroad at a lower price than the domestic price.

Explanation:

Dumping is a practice in international trade where the country exporting, does so at a price that is lower than the domestic price of the good being exported in the importing country.

This allows the country exporting to gain more market share but can also lead to the collapse of the domestic industry thereby allowing for an export based monopoly to form.

An example would be Japan selling electronics in the U.S. at lower rates to capture market share even though those same electronics commanded a higher price in Japan.

7 0
3 years ago
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