Answer:
OC. Radio.
Explanation:
In all the other ones you can see and know what you might be expecting. But in radio, you don't know what to look for or what to expect.
Answer:
The correct answer is False.
Explanation:
The manufacture of iron and steel involves a series of complex processes, whereby iron ore is extracted to produce steel products, using coke and limestone. The conversion processes follow the following steps:
(a) coal coke production, and by-product recovery,
(b) mineral preparation (eg, synthesize and form pellets),
(c) iron production,
(d) steel production, and
(e) casting, laminating and finishing.
You can perform these steps in a single installation, or in several completely separate locations. In many developing countries, scrap steel is manufactured in an electric arc furnace. Therefore, steps (a) through (c) may not always be applicable to all steelmaking projects. An alternative way to produce steel is that of direct reduction, using natural gas and hydrogen. The product of this process, spongy iron, becomes a steel arc furnace; then the ingots melt, and for this the non-flat products are produced with one or two laminators. They are called "mini factories".
Answer:
This question does not include what you are required to do. I looked it up on the web and it is asking for the Internal rate of return (IRR)
Explanation:
Internal rate of return used in project evaluations is the rate at which the NPV of a project equals to zero.
You can solve for IRR using a financial calculator and the cashflow "CF " function. Key in the following inputs;
Initial investment; CF0 = -54,000
Yr1 cashflow inflow ; C01 = 27,000
Yr2 cashflow inflow ; C02 = 25,000
Yr3 cashflow inflow ; C03 = 20,000
Then key in IRR then CPT = 16.792%
Therefore, the Internal rate of return(IRR) for this equipment is 16.79%
Answer:
Dr interest expense 74,812.50
Cr Cash 71,820
Cr Discount on bonds payable 2,992.50
Explanation:
the cash interest payments = principal x coupon rate x 1/2 (semiannual) =$1,197,000 x 12% x 0.5 = $71,820
since the bonds were sold at a discount, we must add the discount amortization = [($1,197,000 x 5%) / 10 years] x 1/2 = $5,985 x 0.5 = $2,992.50
total interest expense = $71,820 + $2,992.50 = $74,812.50
So the journal entry should be:
Dr interest expense 74,812.50
Cr Cash 71,820
Cr Discount on bonds payable 2,992.50
Answer: Style 1 should be used
Explanation: Because this is a directing approach. it is high directive and low supportive. It focuses on communication for goal achievement and is less supporting.
