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nexus9112 [7]
3 years ago
13

Please help asap! :3

Mathematics
2 answers:
lisabon 2012 [21]3 years ago
7 0
240 is the answer to this bc you have to multiply 4,10,6
solniwko [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

it should be D

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps you

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Yesterday noah ran 2 1/2 miles in 3/5 hour. Emily ran 3 3/4 miles in 5/6 hour. Anna ran 3 1/2 miles in 3/4 hour how fast in mile
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the speed of each one we proceed as follows:

speed=distance/time

a] Noah's speed:

distance=2.5 miles

time=3/5 hours

speed=(2 1/2)/(3/5)

=(5/2)/(3/5)

=5/2×5/3

=25/6

=4 1/6 mi/hr

Emily's speed

distance=3 3/4 miles

time=5/6 hour

thus

speed=(3 3/4)/(5/6)

=15/4)/(5/6)

=15/4×6/5

=4 1/2 mi/hr

Anna's speed:

distance=3 1/3 miles

time=3/5

speed=(3 1/3)/(3/5

=(10/3)/(3/5)

=10/3×5/3

=5 5/9 mi/hr

Anna was the fastest

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John has $4000 in his savings account.each month he withdraws $70 from his account which is the type of function that models thi
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

y = 4000 - 70x

Linear function.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x = number of weeks.

In 1 week, he withdraws $70.

That means -70 in 1 week.

After the second week, he will have withdrawn 2 times $70, or

-70 × 2

After 3 week, he will have withdrawn -70 × 3

After x weeks, he will have withdrawn $70 × x,or simply -70x.

He starts with 4000, so after x weeks, he has 4000 - 7x.

Let y = the amount of money at week x.

The equation is

y = 4000 - 70x

This is a linear function.

6 0
2 years ago
The variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :
aliina [53]

Answer: d. np(1 - p).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be any binomial variable which represents the number of success such that X\sim B(n, p) , where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Then, the mean E(x) and the variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :

E(x)=\mu=np

Var (x)=\sigma^2=np(1-p)

where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Therefore , the correct option is option d. np(1 - p) .

6 0
3 years ago
Which equations are equivalent to Negative one-fourth (x) + three-fourths = 12 Select all that apply.
solong [7]

Answer:

b

c

e

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Factor the expression on the left. *<br> x2 - 100 = 0
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

cbsdhcbsufbufbubsdubsusfsdfsdfsd

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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