Answer:
6194.84
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the formula for calculating accumulated annuity amount
F = P × ([1 + I]^N - 1 )/I
Where P is the payment amount. I is equal to the interest (discount) rate and N number of duration
For 40 years,
X = 100[(1 + i)^40 + (1 + i)^36 + · · ·+ (1 + i)^4]
=[100 × (1+i)^4 × (1 - (1 + i)^40]/1 − (1 + i)^4
For 20 years,
Y = A(20) = 100[(1+i)^20+(1+i)^16+· · ·+(1+i)^4]
Using X = 5Y (5 times the accumulated amount in the account at the ned of 20 years) and using a difference of squares on the left side gives
1 + (1 + i)^20 = 5
so (1 + i)^20 = 4
so (1 + i)^4 = 4^0.2 = 1.319508
Hence X = [100 × (1 + i)^4 × (1 − (1 + i)^40)] / 1 − (1 + i)^4
= [100×1.3195×(1−4^2)] / 1−1.3195
X = 6194.84
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
It says the both dimensions are 30%. So, it we do 31 divided by 6, it would be 5 with a remainder of one, which is also equal to 5.1. If we then multiply it by 4, then divide by 9, that would be .03.
Answer:
25 necklaces
Step-by-step explanation:
each necklace brings $16 profit (20-4=16)
400÷ 16= 25
so, at 25 necklaces, there will be enough profit to break even after paying for the advertising.
Answer: 21, 22, 23
Step-by-step explanation:
you divide 66 with 3, that equals 22, then you have three 22. Then you have to take 1 from one of the 22s and give it to the other one, making it 21, 22 and 23
