Since there are two black queens out of 52 cards, there is a 2/52 chance of drawing a black queen first. This is equivalent to a 1/26 chance.
Now that we have removed a black queen, there are 51 cards left in the deck. 26 of them are red because we only took away a black card. This means that there is a 26/51 of drawing a red card next.
In order to find the probability of both of these happening, we multiply the two together. 1/26 * 26/51 = 26/1326. This reduces to 1/51. So, there is a 1/51 chance of drawing a black queen, then a red card.
Rime factorization of 2001:
By prime factorization of 2001 we follow 5 simple steps:
1. We write number 2001 above a 2-column table
2. We divide 2001 by the smallest possible prime factor
3. We write down on the left side of the table the prime factor and next number to factorize on the ride side
4. We continue to factor in this fashion (we deal with odd numbers by trying small prime factors)
5. We continue until we reach 1 on the ride side of the table
<span>2001<span>prime factorsnumber to factorize</span><span>3667</span><span>2329</span><span>291</span></span>
<span>Prime factorization of 2001 = 1×3×23×29= </span><span>1 × 3 × 23 × 29</span>
Answer:
a)
Let x = number of candy bars sold
Let y = amount of money earned
b)
y = 0.75x
c)
He should work at the car wash.
Step-by-step explanation:
a)
Let x = number of candy bars sold
Let y = amount of money earned
b)
$42.75/57 = $0.75
Each candy bar costs $0.75
We can confirm that by dividing $38.25/51 = $0.75
1 candy bar sells for $0.75
2 candy bars sell for $0.75 * 2
x candy bars sell for 0.75 * x, or simply 0.75x
The equation is y = 0.75x
c)
y = 0.75x
y = 0.75 * 36
y = 27
Larry raised $27 by selling candy bars last year. This year, he can earn more than that by working at the car wash.
He should work at the car wash.
Answer:
x = 6
Step-by-step explanation:
6x + 6 = 42
6x = 42 - 6
6x = 36
x = 36 / 6
x = 6
hope it helps :)
It's 5 times 13.5
Which is A