Answer:
32, because 8*4 is 32
Step-by-step explanation:
4/9 divided by 2/3 divided by 5/6 = 4/5
when you divided by two fractions, you can flip the denominator and numerator and then mutiply
The answer is B.
The only reason it will be 200 is because the numbers 1,2,3,4,5,and 6 are all an option so the probability of 5 is 1/6 and if you multiply 1/6 by 1,200 you will get 200. Hope this helped!
Using the calculator it is 27.47 round off to 27.5
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
∑⁴ₙ₌₁ -144 (½)ⁿ⁻¹
This is a finite geometric series with n = 4, a₁ = -144, and r = ½.
S = a₁ (1 − rⁿ) / (1 − r)
S = -144 (1 − (½)⁴) / (1 − ½)
S = -270
If you wanted to find the infinite sum (n = ∞):
S = a₁ / (1 − r)
S = -144 / (1 − ½)
S = -288
Read more on Brainly.com - brainly.com/question/14504382#readmore
