Answer:
a) 1/2; reduction
b) 5/4; enlargement
Step-by-step explanation:
In each case, the scale factor is CP'/CP. When it is more than 1, the dilation is an enlargement.
Even before you run the numbers, you can tell if it is an enlargement or not. If the dilated figure is larger, P is closer to C than is P'. If P' is closer to C, then it is a reduction.
a) CP'/CP = (4-2)/4 = 2/4 = 1/2 . . . . a reduction
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b) CP'/CP = 25/20 = 5/4 . . . . an enlargement
Answer:
like 6 is the factor in both monomials then you can factor like this
6(y^2-1)
Answer:
I would guess 40, I could be wrong.
Step-by-step explanation:
70-30=40. So it would be 40 units away from eachother.
Answer:
A(t) = amount remaining in t years
= A0ekt, where A0 is the initial amount and k is a constant to be determined.
Since A(1690) = (1/2)A0 and A0 = 80,
we have 40 = 80e1690k
1/2 = e1690k
ln(1/2) = 1690k
k = -0.0004
So, A(t) = 80e-0.0004t
Therefore, A(430) = 80e-0.0004(430)
= 80e-0.172
≈ 67.4 g
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.7361
Step-by-step explanation:
In this question we have
number to be 10
Then we have a probability of 10% = 0.10
We have q = 1-p
= 1-0.10 = 0.90
Then the probability of not more than 1 being defective:
P(x=0) + p(x= 1)
(10C0 x 0.1⁰ x 0.9^10-0)+(10C1 x 0.1¹ x 0.9^10-1)
= 1 x1 x0.3487 + 10 x 0.1 x 0.3874
= 0.3487 + 0.3874
= 0.7361
This is the the required probability and this answers the question.
probability = 10 percent = 0.1
q= 1- 10percent = 90% = 0.9
n = 4
To get the required probabiltiy for this question is
P(not greater than one is defective )=P(x=0)+P(x=1)
= 4C0x(0.1)⁰x(0.9)⁴+4C1x(0.1)¹x(0.9)³
= 0.9477
The required probability is 0.9477
