Answer:
The correct answer is Double-declining-balance. The highest net income in year 2 is 6000.
This higher net income don´t mean the machine was used more efficiently under this depreciation method.
Explanation:
In the file attached you will find a depreciation schedule for each of the alternative methods.
Each method need different calculus.
Straight-line
depreciation expense=(Original Value -Residual Value)/Useful life=
depreciation expense=4400
Units-of-production
estimated productive life 10000
Units of Production Rate=(Original Value -Residual Value)/estimated productive life=2,2
Double-declining-balance.
Depreciation rate = 1/useful life *100= 20,00%
Answer:
A
Explanation:
One of the responsibilities of a financial manager is to direct investment activities towards increasing the market value of an organization and also support the long term financial goal of the firm.
In as much as the financial manager is expected to act in the best interest of the shareholders , he should not be bias towards them in carrying out his responsibilities,
Therefore , the best option of the given alternatives in the scenario is the he should work towards increasing the market value by investing in real assets.
Answer:
A. Market Capitalization rate = 13%
B. Intrinsic Value = $46.22
Explanation:
<em>A. Market Capitalization rate:</em>
CAPM should be used to calculate market capitalization from the given data. Following is the formula for CAPM
r = risk free rate
M = market portfolio return
B = beta
Solution:
CAPM = 13%
<em>B. Intrinsic Value of stock</em>
Gordon Growth Model (GGM) should be used to calculate intrinsic value of stock based on the given data.
Following is the formula for GGM
D = Current Dividend
g = Dividend Growth rate
r = market capitalization rate (CAPM calculated in part A)
Solution:
DDM = $46.22
<em>Note: All values are rounded off to two decimal points.</em>
Answer: The correct answer is "C. produce because revenue of $1 comma 000 is greater than fixed costs.".
Explanation: The firm should produce because the revenue of 1000 is enough to cover the fixed costs and part of the variables (1000 - 800 - 600 = (-400)) so that the loss is less than if it stopped producing despite the avoidable costs (800 - 350 = 450) since if it stopped producing it would have a loss of $ 450 and producing it would have a loss of $ 400.
Answer:
by writing the answer
Explanation:
I would advise figuring the question out first.
