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Serggg [28]
3 years ago
7

2.A pump has failed in a facility that will be replaced in three years. A brass pump costing $6,000 will last three years. A use

d stainless-steel pump that should last three years has been sitting in the maintenance shop for a year. The pump cost $13,000 new. The pump is currently valued at $7,000. The maintenance supervisor says that it will cost an extra $500.00 to reconfigure the pump for the new use, and she has noted that it could be sold used (as is) for $4,000. a.How much cheaper or more expensive would it be to use the stainless-steel pump rather than a new brass pump
Business
1 answer:
lapo4ka [179]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

-$1,500 more expensive

Explanation:

Calculation for How much cheaper or more expensive would it be to use the stainless-steel pump rather than a new brass pump

Using this formula

Cheaper or more expensive=Brass pump value-( Current pump value+Pump reconfigure extra amount spent)

Let plug in the formula

Cheaper or more expensive =$6,000-($7,000+$500)

Cheaper or more expensive =$6,000-$7,500

Cheaper or more expensive =-$1,500 more expensive

Therefore based on the information given the stainless steel pump will be $ 1500 more expensive than the brass pump.

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Arjen owns investment A and 1 bond B. The total value of his holdings is 1,529 dollars. Investment A is expected to pay annual c
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Answer:

In order to find the present value of the bond we have to calculate the present value of investment A and subtract is from 1529. We can find the present value of A by discounting all its cash flows.

As the first cash flow is received today and the last will be received 3 years form now there will be a total of 4 cash flows

1) 218.19 (Will not be discounted as we are receiving it today in the present)

2) 218.19/1.0987 (Discount by 1 year as cash will be received in 1 year)

3) 218.19/1.0987^2 (Discount by 2 years as cash will be received in 2 years)

4) 218.19/ 1.0987^3 (Discount by 3 years as cash will be received in 3 years)

= 218.19 + 198.58 + 180.74+ 164.51 = 762.02

PV of Bond = 1529-762.09= 766.91

Semi annual coupons mean 2 payments a year. Bond B matures in 23 years which means a total of 46 payments (23*2). N=46. A coupon rate of 6.4 percent means that the bond pays $64 (0.064*1000) each year. $64 divided by 2 is 32 which is the amount of each semi annual payment Arjen receives. Pv= 766.91 FV = 1000

In a financial calculator put

PV= -766.91

N= 46

FV=1000

PMT= 32

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I is 4.38 and we will multiply it by 2 because the payments are semi annual. So we will get an I of 8.76

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Explanation:

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3 years ago
List and describe the four basic rights in the private enterprise system
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Private property

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and freedom of choice


8 0
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Select the example that is inconsistent with the provisions of the UCC for contract remedies for a seller's breach of contract.
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The example that is inconsistent with the provisions of the UCC for contract remedies for a seller's breach of contract is:

b.) A toy company sells a defective rocket launcher that injures a young boy. The sales contract excludes responsibility for all consequential damages related to the sale of its products, so the company only agrees to refund the cost of the defective toy.

<h3>What is UCC for contract remedies for a seller's breach of contract?</h3>

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