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Vanyuwa [196]
3 years ago
7

5) Scanlin, Inc. is considering a project that will result in initial aftertax cash savings of $2.1 million at the end of the fi

rst year, and these savings will grow at a rate of 2 percent per year indefinitely. The firm has a target debt-equity ratio of .80, a cost of equity of 11 percent and an aftertax cost of debt of 4.6 percent. The cost-saving proposal is somewhat riskier than the usual project the firm undertakes; management uses the subjective approach and applies an adjustment factor of 3 percent to the cost of capital for such risky projects. Under what circumstances should the company take on the project
Business
1 answer:
rewona [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The PV of future cash flow is $22,925,764, therefore the company should take on the project

Explanation:

In order to know if the company should take on the project we have to calculate the PV of future cash flow as follows:

PV of future cash flow=<u>    D1    </u>

                                        RE-g

To calculate this formula we requre to calculate the WACC and the discount rate as follows:

WACC=(1.00/1.80×0.11)+0+(0.80/1.80×0.046)

WACC=0.0611+0+0.02044

WACC=0.081556

WACC=8.16%

After having calculated the WACC we can calculate the project discount rate as follows:

project discount rate=WACC + Additional risk factor

=8.16%+3%

=11.16%

Therefore, PV of future cash flow= <u>$2,100,000</u>

                                                            0.1116-0.02

PV of future cash flow= <u>$2,100,000</u>

                                            0.0916

PV of future cash flow=$22,925,764

The PV of future cash flow is $22,925,764, therefore the company should take on the project

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A firm's cost of equity is 22%. Its before-tax cost of debt is 13% and its marginal tax rate is 21%. The firm's capital structur
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

WACC= 17.95%

Explanation:

Weighted average cost of capital is the average cost of all of the long-term types of finance used by a company weighted according to the that amount of finance used in relation to the total pool of fund.

It is calculated using the formula below:

WACC = (We×Ke)  +  (Wd×Kd)

Ke-cost of equity- 22%

We- equity weight- 100% - 45% = 55%

Kd-After tax cost of debt-10.3%

Wd- 45%

After tax cost of debt = Before tax ×× (1- tax rate)

After tax cost of debt = 13%× (1-0.21) = 10.3%

Cost of equity = 22%

WACC =(0.55× 22%) + (0.45× 13%)=17.95%

WACC= 17.95%

4 0
3 years ago
A truck driver fell asleep at the wheel and his freight truck tipped over, leaking ammonia into the air and requiring an evacuat
ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

its c

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Weimer Corporation wants to accumulate a sum of money to repay certain debts due on December 31, 2030. Weimer will make annu
valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

the fund balance is $1,727,056.25

Explanation:

The computation of the fund balance is shown below:

Given that

PMT = $125,000

NPER  = 10

RATE = 7%

PV = $0

The formula is shown below:

= -FV(RATE,NPER,PMT,PV,TYPE)

After applying the above formula, the fund balance is $1,727,056.25

Here basically the future value formula should be applied

7 0
3 years ago
north company budgets overhead costs for the next year of $5,240,000 for indirect labor and $550,000 for factory utilities. the
grin007 [14]

The company's plantwide overhead rate is calculated to be $38.60 per machine hour.

The company's plantwide overhead rate can be calculated by dividing the sum of overhead costs of indirect labor and factory utilities by the total machine hours planned for the next year. As the overhead cost of indirect labor is $5,240,000 and the overhead cost of factory utilities is $550,000; the plantwide overhead rate can be calculated as follows;

plantwide overhead rate = (overhead cost of indirect labor + overhead cost of factory utilities) ÷ machine hours

plantwide overhead rate = $5,240,000 + $550,000 ÷ 150,000

plantwide overhead rate = 5,790,000 ÷ 150,000

plantwide overhead rate = 38.60

Therefore, the plantwide overhead rate is calculated to be $38.60 per machine hour.

To learn more about overhead rate, click here:

brainly.com/question/24130597

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
At the beginning of the year, the balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is a credit of $760. During the year, $120 of previ
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

=$140

Explanation:

At the beginning of the year, the account had a credit(positive balance of $760)

Previously bad debt that has been reinstated, $120

The new balance will be $760 + $120 = $860

adjusting for the written-off accounts

=$860 - $740

=$140

3 0
3 years ago
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