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kiruha [24]
3 years ago
9

Say you are planning to start a new business. You expect to have losses for the first 2 years and then achieve significant profi

ts. But, in order to grow, you will need to be able to keep the after-tax earnings. You also want to limit your liability. How will you structure your business regarding issuing debt versus increasing equity and why
Business
1 answer:
Fofino [41]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

Solution:

It is perfectly natural that the loss will occur at the start. Since it is not able to pay fixed interest obligations, a preferential or equity capital increase is recommended. The debt fund will create a financial crisis in the capital structure because it will be difficult for the company to fulfil its payment obligation on the initial stage.

The composition of debt capital will contribute to a certain tax savings, but it will certainly increase the overall outflow of the fund.

For Example:  

Total Capital is 1,000,000 costing of 500,00 debt and 500,000 equity and 40 % tax bracket.  

Suppose total return is 10% on capital.

Earnings for the year :   1,000,000 * 10 %  =   100,000

Interest obligation (assume borrowed at 12 % )      = 60,000

Profit before tax                                                        = 40,000

Tax at the rate  40%                                                 =  16,000

Earning after tax available for growth                     = 24,000

Total capital only consists of equities in this example.

The earnings will be same                                        =  100,000

Less tax at the rate 40 %                                           =  40,000

Net earnings available for future growth                 = 60,000

We have an extra earnings available for future growth is 36,000 (60,000 - 24,000).

Ignore tax saving 24,000 (40,000 - 16,000) Because the enterprise requires more for future growth following tax earnings at the initial stage.

So,

The business was structured to maximize the use of own resources instead of borrowing the fund.

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A. Net income was $477000.
serious [3.7K]

Answer:

the answer would be 876

Explanation:

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8 0
3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

FV of ordinary annuity:

$500 per year for 12 years at 6%.  

FV = $500 x 16.870 (FV annuity factor, 6%, 12 periods) = $8,435

$250 per year for 6 years at 3%.  

FV = $250 x 6.4684 (FV annuity factor, 3%, 6 periods) = $1,617.10

$800 per year for 2 years at 0%.

FV = $800 x 2 (FV annuity factor, 6%, 12 periods) = $1,600

FV of annuity due:

$500 per year for 12 years at 6%.  

FV = $500 x 17.8821 (FV annuity due factor, 6%, 12 periods) = $8,941.05

$250 per year for 6 years at 3%.  

FV = $250 x 6.6625 (FV annuity due factor, 3%, 6 periods) = $1,665.63

$800 per year for 2 years at 0%.

FV = $800 x 2 (FV annuity due factor, 6%, 12 periods) = $1,600

8 0
3 years ago
7. What three categories of fees does the revised RESPA rule create?
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

a) zero tolerance, b) 10 percent cumulative tolerance, c) unlimited tolerance.

Explanation:

a) In zero tolerance the rates cannot increase from the loan estimate date to the date of the closing disclosure.

b) Fees for services are added, in case the total loan estimate does not increase more than 10 percent of the total disclosed.

c) It involves rates that are not subject to any tolerance limit. All rates may increase. However, they must still be disclosed in good faith using the best information available at the time of disclosure.

6 0
3 years ago
The following income statement is provided for Vargas, Inc. Sales revenue (2,500 units × $60 per unit) $ 150,000 Cost of goods s
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

The correct answer is 3.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Variable cost = Cost of goods sold (variable) + Supplies

= $50,000 + $10,000 = $60,000

Fixed cost = Cost of goods sold (fixed) + Administrative salaries + Depreciation

= $8,000 + $42,000 +$10,000 = $60,000

So, we can calculate the operating leverage by using following formula:

Operating leverage = Contribution margin ÷ Net operating income

Where, Contribution Margin = Sales revenue - Variable cost

= $150,000 - $60,000 = $90,000

And Net operating income = Contribution Margin - Fixed Cost

= $90,000 - $60,000 = $30,000

By putting the value, we get

Operating leverage = $90,000 ÷ $30,000

= 3

3 0
3 years ago
Garland Inc. offers a new employee a single-sum signing bonus at the date of employment, June 1, 2021. Alternatively, the employ
sweet [91]

Answer:$69,030

The employee can decide to receive a single amount of $69,030 at the employment date.

Explanation:

The time value of money is the idea that money is worth more now, than the same amount a year or five years from now. You can buy more with $10,000 today than you will be able to in 2021 or 2025.

The formula for calculating the present value of money is  

PV =FV \frac{1 }{(1+r)^{n} }

or

PV = \frac{FV }{(1+r)^{n} }

Where PV is the present value

FV is the future value ($10,000)

r is the time value of money (9% or 0.09) and

n is the number of periods   (2025 to 2029).

In this question,

2021 is period 0. In 2021, the employee receives 39,000. This is the <u>present value</u> = 39000

2022 is period 1

2023 is period 2

2024 is period 3

2025 is period 4. In 2025, the employee will receive 10,000 so the present value, PV = 10000\frac{1}{(1+0.09)^{4} }

PV=10000 * 0.708 = 7080

2026 is period 5. In 2026, the employee will receive 10,000 so the present value, PV = 10000\frac{1}{(1+0.09)^{5} }

PV=10000 * 0.650 = 6500

2027 is period 6. In 2027, the employee will receive 10,000 so the present value, PV = 10000\frac{1}{(1+0.09)^{6} }

PV=10000 * 0.596 = 5960

2028 is period 7. In 2028, the employee will receive 10,000 so the present value, PV = 10000\frac{1}{(1+0.09)^{7} }

PV=10000 * 0.547 = 5470

2029 is period 8. In 2029, the employee will receive 10,000 so the present value, PV = 10000\frac{1}{(1+0.09)^{8} }

PV=10000 * 0.502 = 5020

In total, the present value = (39000 + 7080 + 6500  + 5960 + 5470 + 5020)

=69,030

The employee can decide to receive a single amount of $69030 at the employment date.

(You can also look up the values in a discount table and multiply them by the present value. Note that the first payment of $10,000 is in period 4, not 5. This is because 2021 is period 0)

6 0
3 years ago
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