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Sedaia [141]
3 years ago
10

Because internals seem to have a greater belief that their actions have a direct effect on the consequences of that action, they

likely would prefer and respond more productively to incentives such as merit pay or sales commissions.True / False.
Business
1 answer:
Pavlova-9 [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: True

Explanation: Merit pay is an increase in employee base paid due to some increase in employee performance. While sales commission are payments to employee based on a percentage of the total revenue brought in by the employee.

It is true that employees would respond more productively to incentives such as merit pay or sales commission.

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Brian vargo, an auto repair mechanic who remains unemployed because he refuses to work for less than $1,000 an hour, is:
Verizon [17]
The answer is he is not part of the labor force. Since the labor force is comprises of the employed and the unemployed. The remainder— persons who are neither employed nor unemployed are not in the labor force. This group comprises retired persons, students, those taking care of children or other family members, and others who are neither working nor seeking work. Since the mid-1990s, naturally fewer than 1 in 10 people not in the labor force stated that they want a job.
3 0
3 years ago
Net exports of goods and services is defined as equal to?
Jet001 [13]
 A. because The United States and other countries import and export goods  for the need of there country.
8 0
3 years ago
For an analysis of the salaries of your​ company, you plot the salaries of all employees against the number of years they have w
Arisa [49]

Answer:

1. That values that you must plot are:

  • (1, 4.08))
  • (20, 5.08)
  • (40, 6.18)

2. Yes, the plot of those three points is straight enough.

Explanation:

<em><u>A. What are the values you will​ plot? </u></em>

The x-ccordinate of your plot is still the number of years the exmployees have worked for the company.

The y-coordinate of your plot is the the​ base-10 logarithm of  the salary.

Therefore:

<u>1) A​ part-time shipping​ clerk</u>: 1 year, $12,000

           ⇒     (1,log_{10}12,000)=(1,4.08)

<u>2) A manager</u>: 20 years, $120,000

  ⇒     (20,log_{10}120,000)=(20,5.08)

<u>3) The​ CEO</u>: 40 years​ ago, $1,500,000

  ⇒     (40,log_{10}1,500,000)=(40,6.18)

Summarizing, the points to plot are:

  • (1, 4.08)
  • (20, 5.08)
  • (40, 6.18)

<u><em>B. Will the plot of these three points be straight​ enough?</em></u>

To find whether the plot is straight enoguh, you may either plot them, make a regression, or, since they are only three points, you can whether the change of rate of the points is constant.

  • <u>Change of rate of the first two points, r</u>:

       r = rise/run = Δy / Δx = (5.08 - 4.08) / (20 - 1) =1.00/19 ≈ 0.05

  • <u>Change of rate of the second and the third points, r</u>:

       r = rise/run = Δy / Δx = (6.18 - 5.08) / (20 - 1) = 0.05

Since both rate of changes are equal (or reasonably equal) the plot is  straight enough.

4 0
3 years ago
A T-bill that is 290 days from maturity is selling for $96,040. The T-bill has a face value of $100,000.
umka2103 [35]

Answer: a 0.049, 0.05 and 0.05 or 5%

b 0.039, 0.041 and 0.041 or 4%

Explanation:

Ai discounted yield = [(Face value - purchase price)/Face value] * 360/ maturity

Discount yield =:[(100000 - 96040)/100000] * 360/290

= 0.0396* 1.24

= 0.049

ii. Bond equivalent yield (BEY) = [(Face value - purchase price)/purchase value] * 365/M

BEY= [(100000 - 96040)/96040] * 365/290

BEY = 0.05

iii EAR = [(1+BEY/n)exp n - 1)

EAR = [(1 + 0.05/(365/290)) exp (360/290) - 1]

EAR = [(1 + 0.05/1.26) exp (1.26) - 1

EAR = (1.04) exp (1.26) - 1

EAR = 0.05 or 5%

The same formula are applied for the B part

Discount yield = [(100000-96040)/100000] * 360/365

Discount yield = 0.0396 * 0.986

= 0.039

B ii. BEY = [(100000 - 96040)/96040] * 365/365

BEY = 0.041 × 1

BEY = 0.041

B iii. EAR = [(1 + 0.041/(365/365))exp (365/365) - 1

EAR = (1 + 0.41) - 1

EAR = 0.041 or 4%

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose the incomes of buyers in a market for a particular normal good decrease and there is also a reduction in input prices. W
kirill [66]

Answer:

an indeterminate effect on equilibrium quantity and a fall in equilibrium price.

Explanation:

A normal good is a good whose demand increases when income increases and falls when income falls.

If income falls and the good is a normal good, demand would fall. This would lead to a fall in price and quantity.

If cost of input falls, the cost of production would fall and supply would increase. This would lead to an increase in quantity and a fall in price.

The combined effect would an indeterminate effect on equilibrium quantity and a fall in equilibrium price.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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