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navik [9.2K]
3 years ago
5

If electricity power failures occur according to a Poisson distribution with an average of 3 failures every twenty weeks, calcul

ate the probability that there will not be more than one failure during a particular week.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Wittaler [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

0.9898 = 98.98% probability that there will not be more than one failure during a particular week.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

3 failures every twenty weeks

This means that for 1 week, \mu = \frac{3}{20} = 0.15

Calculate the probability that there will not be more than one failure during a particular week.

Probability of at most one failure, so:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

Then

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.15}*0.15^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.8607

P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.15}*0.15^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.1291

Then

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.8607 + 0.1291 = 0.9898

0.9898 = 98.98% probability that there will not be more than one failure during a particular week.

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Softa [21]

we have

14 \frac{3}{5}

This is a mixed number

we know that

A mixed number is a combination of a whole number and a fraction.

So

14 \frac{3}{5} is equal to

14 +\frac{3}{5}

where

14 is the whole number

\frac{3}{5} is the fraction

\frac{3}{5}=0.60

14 +\frac{3}{5} =14+0.60\\ \\ =14.60

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the answer is

14.60

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What is the inverse of the following statement? If m is the midpoint of PQ, then PM is congruent to QM
stepan [7]

The inverse of the statement is M be the point on PQ since PM is congruent to QM than M is midpoint on the PQ.

<h3>What do you mean by inverse?</h3>

Inverse of the statement means that explain the condition in reverse way or vice versa.

Since, M is the midpoint of PQ, then PM is congruent to QM.
Proving in reverse way, let m be the point between P and Q the distance M from P is equal to the distance from M to Q. Which implies that M lies as the mid of the P and Q.

Thus, the inverse of the statement is M be the point on PQ since PM is congruent to QM than M is midpoint on the PQ.

Learn more about inverse here:
brainly.com/question/5338106


#SPJ1

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