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sleet_krkn [62]
2 years ago
7

A company uses the finite replenishment model to determine the optimal quantity to produce. There are days a year over which dem

and and production occur. The daily demand is ​, and the production rate is per day. The setup cost for production is ​$ per setup. Assuming that the carrying cost is percent of the​ item's ​$ ​cost, what is the​ length, in​ days, of a production run if the company produces the replenishment quantity that minimizes its​ inventory-related costs?
Business
1 answer:
SVEN [57.7K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

16.1 days

Explanation:

Note: The full question is attached as picture below

Daily demand d = 520

Annual demand D = 520*250 = 130000

Setup cost S = $680

Production rate p = 875

Holding cost H = 0.25*25 = 6.25

Optimal order quantity Q

Q = \sqrt{2DS/H} \sqrt{p / p -d}

Q = \sqrt{(2*130000*680)/6.25}   \sqrt{875/875-520}

Q = 8350

Length of production run = Q/d

Length of production run = 8350/520

Length of production run = 16.05769230769231

Length of production run = 16.1 days

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Answer:

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B.

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Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $60,000 = $140,000

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Book value at the end of year 3 = $80,000 - $60,000 = $20,000

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Sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 years

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (3/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (1/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $90,000 = $110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $110,000 - $60,000 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $50,000 - $30,000 = $20,000

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/3

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (2/3) x $200,000 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $133,333.33 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/3) x $66,666.67 = $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $66,666.67 - $44,444.45= $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (2/3) x$22,222.22 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 =$22,222.22 - $14,814.16 = $7,407.40

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To learn more about Pretexting: brainly.com/question/10311345

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