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Nikolay [14]
3 years ago
8

Plz prove this for me.....

Mathematics
1 answer:
s344n2d4d5 [400]3 years ago
3 0

I've answered your other question as well.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the identity is true whether the angle x is measured in degrees, radians, gradians (indeed, anything else you care to concoct), I’ll omit the ‘degrees’ sign.

Using the binomial theorem, (a+b)3=a3+3a2b+3ab2+b3

⇒a3+b3=(a+b)3−3a2b−3ab2=(a+b)3−3(a+b)ab

Substituting a=sin2(x) and b=cos2(x), we have:

sin6(x)+cos6(x)=(sin2(x)+cos2(x))3−3(sin2(x)+cos2(x))sin2(x)cos2(x)

Using the trigonometric identity cos2(x)+sin2(x)=1, your expression simplifies to:

sin6(x)+cos6(x)=1−3sin2(x)cos2(x)

From the double angle formula for the sine function, sin(2x)=2sin(x)cos(x)⇒sin(x)cos(x)=0.5sin(2x)

Meaning the expression can be rewritten as:

sin6(x)+cos6(x)=1−0.75sin2(2x)=1−34sin2(2x)

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

it is to be noted that the question is only asking for the probability of the 2nd card given that the first card was queen (P(F|Q)), and not asking for the probability of 1st card to be queen and 2nd card to be faced cardP(Q\,\text{and}\,F)

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P(F|Q) = \dfrac{11}{51}

and this our answer!

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