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k0ka [10]
3 years ago
7

Molzahn Corporation is a manufacturer that uses job-order costing. The company closes out any overapplied or underapplied overhe

ad to Cost of Goods Sold at the end of the year. The company has supplied the following data for the just completed year:
Estimated total manufacturing overhead at the beginning of the year $481,250
Estimated direct labor-hours at the beginning of the year 35,000 direct labor-hours

Results of operations:
Actual direct labor-hours 40,000 direct labor-hours
Manufacturing overhead:
Indirect labor cost $ 179,000
Other manufacturing overhead costs incurred $ 465,000
Business
1 answer:
Maurinko [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 481,250 / 35,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate=  $13.75 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we allocate overhead based on actual hours:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 13.75*40,000

Allocated MOH= $550,000

<u>Finally, the under/over applied overhead and the closing to cost of goods sold:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 644,000 - 550,000

Underapplied overhead= $94,000

When overhead is underapplied, we need to debit the cost of goods sold.

COGS     94,000

 Manufacturing overhead   94,000

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Answer:

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