Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.
<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>
The formula is:
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
Considering that there are 4 questions, and each has 5 choices, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 4, p = 1/5 = 0.2.
The probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions is P(X = 1), hence:
0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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Just saying this but don't go to that store! The answer, by the way is $1494
Answer: i think the answer is -3
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
14.4 would be the answer hope this is helpful
Step-by-step explanation:
14.4/30= 48%
Answer:
The answer is True.
Step-by-step explanation:
Sales variance is computed in same manner as cost variance that is computing both price and volume variance. However interpretation of end result will not be same. For example in material price variance if
A = actual purchase price = $ 4, B = standard purchase price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity purchased = 500 units then
Material price varaince = 500 (5-4) = 500,
This gives us favourable price variance of 500 dollars. However in sales price variance if
A = actual sales price = $ 4, B = standard sale price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity sold = 500 units then
Sale price varaince = 500 (5-4) = (500)
This gives us unfavourable sales price variance of 500 dollars.
This show that formulas to compute variances are same but sale price decrease give us un favorable variance and cost price decrease gives us favorable price variance and vice versa.
