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Fiesta28 [93]
3 years ago
13

PLEASE HELP!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vlad1618 [11]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I will say the answer is A

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In total there are 20 students and only 6 read 1 book. So the answer would be 6/20
4 0
3 years ago
150 - x = 87 what does x equal here ?
Ainat [17]

Answer:

x=63

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Subtract by 150 from both sides of equation.</em>

<em>150-x-150=87-150</em>

<em>Simplify.</em>

<em>87-150=-63</em>

<em>-x=-63</em>

<em>Divide by -1 from both sides of equation.</em>

<em>-x/1=-63/-1</em>

<em>Simplify, to find the answer.</em>

<em>-63/-1=63</em>

<em>x=63 is the correct answer.</em>

<em>I hope this helps you, and have a wonderful day!</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jimmy began deriving the quadratic formula as shown. ax² +bx +c = 0 x2+bax+ca=0 x2+bax=−ca x2+bax+(b2a)2=−ca+(b2a)2 What should
andrew11 [14]
Factor the trinomial

8 0
3 years ago
Box of 15 gadgets is known to contain 5 defective gadgets if 4 gadgets are drawn at random what is the probability of finding no
baherus [9]

To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:

P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)

where,

n = the total number of gadgets = 4

r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)

p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget

q = probability of failure = 1 – p

 

Calculating for p:

p = 5 / 15 = 0.33

So,

q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67

 

Calculating for P when r = 1:

P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3

P (r = 1) = 0.3970

 

 

Calculating for P when r = 2:

P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2

P (r = 2) = 0.2933

 

Therefore the total probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets is:

P = 0.3970 + 0.2933

P = 0.6903

 

Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.

5 0
4 years ago
Helllllllllppppp plllllsssss
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer: It’s B

Because I took the quiz and got it right

8 0
3 years ago
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